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QUESTION 1 A workload was attached to a logical switch port group in Compute Cluster 1. Users are complaining that they can communicate with other workloads on that port group in the cluster, but not with other workloads on different networks.
What is the most probable cause? A. The distributed firewall has a default rule set to deny all. B. The Distributed Logical Router was not configured on Compute Cluster 1. C. Compute Cluster 1 is NOT a member of the Transport Zone. D. An NSX Edge has NOT been deployed into Compute Cluster 1. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A group of users needs secured access to a set of web-based applications in a SDDC. Which VPN option is best suited for this? A. IPSec VPN B. SSL VPN-Plus C. L2VPN D. Application VPN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which vSphere network object abstracts the physical network, provides access-level switching in the hypervisor and enables support for overlay networking? A. Standard Switch B. Distributed Port Group C. Distributed Switch D. Logical Switch Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What are two roles of vmnics? (Choose two.) A. ESXi hosts reach the physical network through vmnics. B. Virtual machines require vmnics to communicate with their host. C. ESXi hosts are segmented using vmnics, also called virtual trunk ports. D. Virtual machines require vmnics to communicate with physical networks. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 Which three methods can be used by the NSX Distributed Firewall to discover IP addresses? (Choose three.) A. DHCP Snooping B. IP Sets C. Spoofguard configured for Trust on First Use. D. VMware Tools installed on every guest virtual machine. E. ARP Snooping Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 6 What is required before running an Activity Monitoring report? A. Enable data collection on the NSX Controller. B. Enable data collection on the vCenter Server. C. Enable data collection on the NSX Manager. D. Enable data collection on the virtual machine. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 The fact that NSX Data Security has visibility into sensitive data provides which two benefits? (Choose two.) A. It helps address compliance and risk management requirements. B. It acts as a forensic tool to analyze TCP and UDP connections between virtual machines. C. It is able to trace packets between a source and destination without requiring access to the guest OS. D. It eliminates the typical agent footprint that exists with legacy software agents. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8 What is the most restrictive NSX role that can be used to create and publish security policies and install virtual appliances? A. Security Administrator B. NSX Administrator C. Auditor D. Enterprise Administrator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which NSX routing protocols offers the most flexible policy control when peering with the physical environment? A. BGP B. OSPF C. ISIS D. EIGRP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An administrator has been asked to provide single failure redundancy. What is the minimum supported number of NSX Controllers needed to meet this requirements? A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 5 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 What can be enabled on the vSphere Distributed Switch to monitor IP packets that are passing through a distributed port group? A. Traffic Marking B. TraceFlow C. Traffic Filtering D. NetFlow Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 How is high availability of the NSX Edge Gateway accomplished? A. HA Application Monitoring on the Edge Gateway sends a heartbeat to the ESXi host. B. VMware Tools on the Edge Gateway sends a heartbeat to the ESXi host. C. The Edge appliance sends a heartbeat through an uplink interface. D. The Edge appliance sends a heartbeat through an internal interface. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 An administrator is deploying NSX in a Cross-vCenter configuration across three data centers located 100 miles apart Datacenter-1 and Datacenter-3 already have NSX deployed locally and Datacenter-2 does not have NSX deployed yet. What is the correct order of steps to configure all three data centers for this solution? A. 1. Remove the NSX manager from Datacenter-1 and Datacenter-3. 2. Reinstall all three NSX managers at the same time. 3. Deploy a universal transport zone. 4. Deploy a universal distributed logical router. B. 1. Deploy an NSX manager at Dataenter-2. 2. Change the roles of the NSX managers in Datacentar-1 and Datacenter-3 to Transit Mode. 3. Deploy a universal transport zone. 4. Configure the Primary and Secondary roles on all three NSX managers. C. 1. Deploy an NSX manager in Datacenter 2. 2. Update the NSX manager role in Datacenter-1 to Primary. 3. Update the roles in Datacenter-2 and Datacentar-3 to Secondary. 4. Deploy a universal transport zone. D. 1. Deploy the NSX manager at Datacenter-2. 2. Update the NSX manager role in Datacenter-1 to Primary. 3. Deploy a universal transport zone. 4. Deploy a universal distributed logical router. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side? A. reset trunk on near side B. reset trunk on far side C. reset trunk on far and near side D. restart call manager service Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 2 What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks? A. 100 ms B. 150 ms C. 200 ms D. 300 ms Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 3 An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications? A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone. B. Select the globe button on the IP phone. C. Select Settings > User Preferences. D. Select Settings > Device Configuration. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 4 Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two) A. dial-peer voice 910 pots B. dial-peer voice 9 pots C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip D. destination pattern is incorrect E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer Correct Answer: BF Explanation Explanation/Reference: The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
QUESTION 5 An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active? A. LDAP System Configuration B. LDAP Directory C. End User Configuration D. LDAP Authentication E. Route Plan Report Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6 A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? A. network router B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node C. network switch D. IP phones E. SIP gateway Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 7 User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo? A. user A handset B. user B headset C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 8 What is needed to support SIP Early Media? A. Media Termination Point B. Transcoder C. Annunciator D. Conference Bridge E. DSP F. Route List Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 9 Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.) A. greedy B. TCP retransmits C. UDP priority D. delay sensitive E. drop insensitive F. benign G. benign or greedy Correct Answer: CDF Explanation
QUESTION 10 With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages? A. It never retransmit the rekey messages B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails E. it always retransmit the rekey message Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 11 In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 12 After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles? A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN. B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN. C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN. D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 13 An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system? A. SCCP B. SIP C. MGCP D. H.323 Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 14 How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress? A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace. C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces. D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace. E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: pressing the button (?) twice in quick succession during an active call. The display shows you receive and transmit statistics for the call Link: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_Unified_Communications_–_One-Way_Audio
QUESTION 15 Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.) A. Round-trip time B. QoS markings C. Bandwidth D. Ethernet E. Fibre F. Token ring Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 16 Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection? A. .xls B. .doc C. .csv D. .pdf Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 17 To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.) A. calling search space B. partitions C. route groups D. SIP trunk E. gateway Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 18 An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first? A. IP phone B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources C. voice gateways D. network routers and switches Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 19 Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.) A. QoS configuration tool B. mean opinion score tool C. bulk administration toolD. jitter compensation tool E. rFactor tool Correct Answer: BE Explanation
QUESTION 20 Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. Bulk administration tool B. LDAP C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL D. Outlook E. Presence F. Cisco Compatible Extensions Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 21 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed? A. Gateway utilization B. Gateway summary C. Gateway detail D. Gateway and line group utilization Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22 Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone C. voice-enabled message navigation D. voice-enabled dialing to external users E. automated attendant capabilities F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
QUESTION 23 A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication? A. account ID B. password C. PIN D. digest credentials Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 24 An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.) A. It requires the use of schedules for backups. B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password. C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted. D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out. E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported. F. SSL is used between the master and local agents. Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone A. Media Resource Group B. Conference Resource list C. Conference Bridge D. Media Resource Group List Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 26 End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying? A. FECC B. DTMF C. FEC D. PIP Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 27 A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone? A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone. B. Select Settings > Applications. C. Select Settings > Network > Applications. D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.) A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone. B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services. C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call. D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone. Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/sip/configuration/12- 4t/sip-12-4t-book/voi-sip-dtmf.html#GUID-A23A02E9-3FD2-4C3A-8ED4-78BDC82AAEAE
QUESTION 29 A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.) A. First Name B. User ID C. PIN D. Telephone Number E. Password F. Last Name Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 30 A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking. Which option is one cause of this noise? A. QoS B. LoPS C. VAD D. EPL E. SRST Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 31 A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely? A. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > general settings. B. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > phone > phone settings. C. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules. D. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > voicemail. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 32 A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used? A. RTP B. DHCP C. CDP D. SIP Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cuipph/7905g_7912g/5_0/sip/englis h/administration/guide/5_0/LowPovr.html#wp1066491
QUESTION 33 Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with clients who are outside the corporate network? A. Cisco Extension Mobility B. Cisco TMS C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination D. Cisco Unified RTMT E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34 Several users in the same Call Manager group reported that they receive a fast busy tone when they go off hook. They reported that the issue went away after a few minutes. Where should the voice systems administrator begin troubleshooting? A. SIP gateway B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber C. network cable D. 7945 IP phone Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 35 A network administrator wants a new employee to download the RTMT tool. Which menu option supports this function? A. Bulk Administration > Job Scheduler > Plugins B. Application > Plugins C. Call routing > Plugins D. Server > Region > Plugins Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/using-rtmt- to-monitor-cisco-unity-connection-and-cucm/ta-p/3122211
QUESTION 36 An administrator must keep CDR data for a longer period of time and wants to modify the configured value of the CDR/CMR Files Presentation Duration Days). Which menu options does the engineer navigate? A. Unified CM Administration > System > Enterprise Parameters B. Unified Serviceability > Tools > Serviceability Reports Archive C. Unified CM Administration > Call Routing > Route Plan Report D. Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Management Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 37 What is the maximum amount of packet loss an engineer should allow for voice traffic on an IP network? A. 5 percent B. 2 percent C. 3 percent D. 1 percent Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 38 A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot? A. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unity Connection B. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. SIP trunk between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unity Connection D. IP phone network connectivity Correct Answer: CExplanation
QUESTION 39 A manager is generating bill reports for a particular user. Which navigation sequence must be used for this task? A. Bills > Department B. User Reports > Bills > Department C. Bill > Individual D. User Reports > Bills > Individual Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/service/8_5_1/car/CAR/carus erb.pdf
QUESTION 40 Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. MAC B. IP C. E.164 D. SIP URI Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 41 A voicemail user reports that he cannot access Cisco Unity Connection from the IP phone message button. Which option must you perform to resolve the problem? A. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Advanced Features > Voicemail to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile B. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the device has the correct voicemail profile C. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the directory number has the correct voicemail profile D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to User Management > End User to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile E. In Cisco Unity Connection, navigate to Users > Users to confirm that the user web password is correct. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 42 Which two user attributes must be defined in Cisco Unity Connection before the users can be added? (Choose two.) A. display name B. alias C. time zone D. class of service E. dial plan Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/11x/administration/guide /b_cucsag/b_cucsag_chapter_010101.html
QUESTION 43 Users are complaining about dropped calls, so a network engineer needs to troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communications Manager to view concurrent calls and dropped calls. Where does the engineer generate such reports? A. Cisco Unified Serviceability B. Cisco Unified OS Administration C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 44 An engineer must ensure that user data is maintained in lightweight directory access protocol and copied to Cisco Unity Connection, but Cisco Unity Connection-specific data is locally maintained in the Cisco Unity Connection database. Which user creation option accomplishes this task? A. bulk administration B. import from CUCM via AXL C. import from LDAP D. manual creation Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/11x/administration/guide /b_cucsag/b_cucsag_chapter_01001.html
QUESTION 45 DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 46 DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 47 DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 48 DRAG DROP Drag from the left to correct steps.
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria. Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay. Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence. Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR). Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ). LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class. Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access. We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship. The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 4 DRAG and DROP
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QUESTION 5 Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
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QUESTION 6 The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right.
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QUESTION 7 Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
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QUESTION 8 Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
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QUESTION 9 Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
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QUESTION 10 Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.
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QUESTION 11 Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right
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QUESTION 12 Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right
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QUESTION 13 Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer.
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QUESTION 14 Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement on the right.
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QUESTION 15 Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.
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QUESTION 16 Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
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QUESTION 17 Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right
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QUESTION 18 Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
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QUESTION 19 Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
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QUESTION 20 Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
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QUESTION 21 Drag and drop the top-down approach process step 1 – 4 !
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QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP Match the bandwidth usage optimization technique on the left with its definition on the right.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: + limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size+ reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data compression+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by applications: queuing+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP precedence): traffic policing
QUESTION 23 Which H.323 protocol monitors calls for factors such as packet counts, packet loss, and arrival jitter? A. H.225 B. H.245 C. RAS D. RTCP Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 24 When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does the Enterprise Teleworker module establish its connection? A. Building Core B. Building Access C. Enterprise Branch D. Enterprise Data CenterE. WAN/Internet Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 25 The BodMech online fitness organization specializes in creating fitness plans for senior citizens. The company recently added a health-products retail inventory. Which E-Commerce module device will allow customers to interact with the company and purchase products? A. application server B. database server C. public server D. web server E. NIDS appliance F. SMTP mail server Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 26 Which two wireless attributes should be considered during a wireless site survey procedure? (Choose two.) A. encryption B. channel C. authentication D. power E. SSID Correct Answer: BD Explanation
QUESTION 27 You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and need to obtain the following router information: Interfaces running processes IOS image being executed Which command should you use? A. show version B. show tech-support C. show startup-config D. show running-config E. show processes memory Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which of these domain-of-trust security statements is correct? A. Segments within a network should have the same trust models. B. An administrator should apply consistent security controls between segments. C. Communication between trusted entities needs to be carefully managed and controlled. D. Segment security policy decisions are based on trust. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 29 When collecting information about a customer’s existing network, which two sources will provide the most accurate data? (Choose two.) A. traffic analysis B. customer interview C. customer-supplied server list D. existing network topology diagram E. configurations obtained from network equipment Correct Answer: AE Explanation
QUESTION 30 Which modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? Select all that apply. A. Teleworker B. WAN/MAN C. Server Farm D. E-Commerce E. Internet Connectivity F. Remote Access/VPN Correct Answer: BDEF Explanation
QUESTION 31 Which H.323 protocol is responsible for the exchanging of capabilities and the opening and closing of logical channels? A. H.225 B. H.245 C. RAS D. RTCP Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which one of the following represent correct IPv6 Global Unicast address format? A. 48bit(Global Prefix)+16bit(Subnet ID)+64bit(Interface ID) B. 16bit(Subnet ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix)+64bit(Interface ID) C. 64bit(Interface ID)+16bit(Subnet ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix) D. 64bit(Interface ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix)+16bit(Subnet ID) Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 33 What is the maximum number of switches in VSS? A.2B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34 What DNS entry to use for WLC with firmware version 6.0 or later so an Access Point can determine the controller’s IP address? A. DNS A record with controller’s hostname B. DHCP option 43 C. cisco-capwap-controller D. cisco-lwapp-controller Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 35 Two companies that want to connect with multiple providers vendors, what protocol is the proper one to use? A. BGP B. IS-IS C. OSPF D. EIGRP Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 36 Which subnet mask should you use on point-to-point links to avoid wasting IP addresses? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.250 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.248 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 37 Which virtualization deployment an engineer will execute to separate to accomplish security policies? A. Same corporate Network with NAC capabilities. B. Something using VLANs Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 38 What statement about EVN is true? A. Support RIP B. Support OSPFV3 C. Required LDP D. Support as many as 32 virtual networks per device Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 39 Consider the reservation of IP Addressing what mask you will use in a point to point connection between two Buildings? A. 255.255.252.0 B. 255.255.255.252 C. 255.255.255.254 Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 40 What describes the link performance? A. Bandwidth B. Utilization C. Availability Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_performance
QUESTION 41 What tool would you use to capture, segregate and analyse IP traffic? A. Protocol Analyser B. NetFlow Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 42 What tool would you use to decode protocols? A. Protocol Analyser B. NetFlow C. Spectrum Analyser Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 43 What should be considered when scaling EIGRP? (Choose three) A. CPU B. Peers C. Query scope D. Interface Bandwidth E. Memory F. IP Address Correct Answer: BCF Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: http://lostintransit.se/2013/11/23/eigrp-network-design/
QUESTION 44 Which two high-level design components are included in Unified Wireless network? A. Local B. Cisco FlexConnect C. Deterministic D. N+1 E. Dynamic Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 45 How to reduce the size of a routing table? (Choose two): A. NAT B. Summarization C. Static routes D. VLAN Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 46 What query should you make if you want to find all objects of a particular type in an MIT tree? A. mid-tree-level B. class-level C. object-level D. tree-level Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 47 What will extend a trust boundary (there is switch interface configuration with separate voice VLAN and data VLAN configured where the phone is connected to, also small diagram showing endpoint (host), IP Phone, Access Switch, Distribution Switch, Core Switch and Data Centre Aggregation switch)? A. Multiple layers PC B. IP Phone C. Access Switch D. Distribution Switch E. Core Switch Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 48 What kind of servers you should place in DMZ? A. WWW B. FTP C. DHCP D. TACACS+ E. NFP Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 49 What access policies to set up for remote VPN access (Choose three)? A. Admins are centrally authenticated with full network access B. Partners are centrally authenticated with access limited by use of ACLs C. Employees are centrally authenticated with access limited by use of ACLs D. Admins are locally authenticated with full network access E. Partners are centrally authenticated with full access F. Employees are centrally authenticated with full access Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 50 An organization needs to implement isolated logical structure due to compliance regulations. What complex access control network virtualization method can it use? A. The IT organization creates a quarantine network for end points that do not meet the posture assessment requirements B. The IT organization creates a separate guest network for wireless and wired clients C. The IT organization acts as a client serving different, isolated departments Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 51 What are two advantages of a modular design? (Choose two) A. Increased scalability B. Security can be implemented at every module C. Increased redundancy as you can add modules D. Hierarchy included in design Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1073230&seqNum=2 https://thwack.solarwinds.com/docs/DOC-175763
QUESTION 52 What is the best point to deploy the IPS, not to have false positives, since the traffic is already filtered?
A. Inline before the firewallB. Inline after the firewall C. Passive of the firewall D. Passive of the Switch Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/intrusion-prevention-systems-ids/correct- placement-of-ids-ips-in-network-architecture/td-p/2632437
QUESTION 53 What VPN tunneling technology supports multicast? A. DMVPN spoke-to-spoke B. IPSec direct tunnelling hub-and-spoke C. Easy VPN D. IPSec direct tunnelling spoke-to-spoke Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 54 Which one of the following is “synchronous link” design? A. SSL VPN over serial cable modem B. Bonded T1s C. Internet VPN D. MPLS VPN Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure does this network map emphasize? A. network services B. network protocols C. the OSI data link layer D. network applications Correct Answer: D Explanation
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Pass4itsure offers the latest Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 practice test free of charge (49Q&As)
QUESTION 1 What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies? A. 10 B. 8 C. 1 D. X Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data? A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site? A. Cloud B. Converged C. Centralized Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP? A. show logging B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC? A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC) B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3) A. 52 B. 136 C. 124 D. 161 Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 7 What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3) A. RSSI cell edge of -25B. RSSI cell edge of -16 C. SNR of 25 D. Cell Overlap of 20% E. RSSI -67 Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8 What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? (Choose 3) A. Bluetooth Headset B. Microwave Ovens C. Analog Wireless Camera D. AdHoc Wireless Camera E. AdHoc Hotspot Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9 What are reqs for VoWLAN? A. RSSI -67 B. SNR 25 C. 20% overlapping cells Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps? A. SNR 25 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain? A. 1 B. 8 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement? A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group. B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building? A. Passive B. Active C. Planning Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3) A. RSSI -67 B. SNR 25 C. 20% cell overlapping Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15 Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP? A. Wireless B. Management C. Controller D. Monitor. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming? A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS? A. TFTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain? A. 1 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network? A. 25 B. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.) A. AES B. CCKM C. EAP-FAST D. EAP-TLS E. PEAP F. WEP Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 21 Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers? A. show config B. show run config C. show run-config D. show running config E. show running-config Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 22 Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.) A. Authority ID B. Authority ID Information C. Client Key D. PAC E. Server Key F. TTL for PAC G. Monitor Key H. NTP Source Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 23 Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point? A. debug dot11 B. show arp switch C. show client detailed D. show exclusionlist Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24 Which statement applies to TKIP? A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations? A. 16 dBm B. 17 dBm C. 20 dBm D. 30 dBm Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26 How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version? A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers. B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments. D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band? A. Complimentary Code Keying B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero? A. Clients are excluded indefinitely. B. Clients are never excluded. C. Client exclusion is disabled. D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address. E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. What is the next step the AP performs? A. DHCP option 43. B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain. C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast. D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast. E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC? A. AP priming B. defining a master controller C. DHCP Option 6 D. DHCP Option 43 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern? A. dBi B. dBm C. mW D. GHz Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a standards? A. BPSK B. CCK C. DSSS D. OFDM Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1? A. config t interface BVI1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 B. config t interface BVI1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 C. config t interface FastEthernet1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 D. config t interface Dot11Radio0 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1E. config t interface FastEthernet1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 F. config t interface Dot11Radio0 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.) A. operating RF channel B. SSID names C. transmit power levels D. switch port parameters E. antenna gain Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35 Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.) A. antenna bandwidth B. antenna gain C. cable loss D. receiver sensitivity E. SSID F. transmission power Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 36 Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA? A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources. B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client. C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase. D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless communications between client and AP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers? A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum C. Narrow Band Frequency D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38 Which two statements best describe LWAPP? (Choose two.) A. Cisco proprietary B. communication between the AP and client C. communication between the AP and the WLC D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning E. used to encrypt control and data packets Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39 What is fading? A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate. B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss. C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves. D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor. E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information. F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.) A. AAA Server B. Authenticatee C. Authenticator D. Authentication Server E. Supplicant Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41 Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.) A. Eavesdropping B. Denial of Service C. War Driving D. Man-in-the-Middle Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 42 Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform? (Choose two.) A. antenna selection B. AP address assignment C. channel assignment D. encryption method assignment E. transmit power control Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43 In general, what is the difference in transmit power between an AP operating at Tx Power Level 1 and the same AP operating at Tx Power Level 3? A. 2 dB B. 3 dB C. 6 dB D. 11 dB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes? A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller. B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational. C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known. D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45 Why are wireless analog video signals that are operating in the 2.4-GHz band particularly harmful to Wi-Fi service? A. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR. B. Analog video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle. C. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band. D. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46 What security benefit is enabled by using Management Frame Protection? A. Provides encryption of administrator sessions between a wireless client and a wireless LAN controller. B. Protects the network infrastructure from denial-of-service attacks that attempt to flood the network with associations and probes. C. Prevents the formation of client ad hoc networks within the RF coverage domain. D. Detects network reconnaissance probes, like those used by tools like NetStumbler, that attempt to discover the wireless network topology. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47 The corporate network locates all RADIUS servers at the centralized data center for authentication. The remote offices use access points operating in H-REAP mode using v5.0 code with various local and central switch WLANs. When a remote office has lost connectivity to the main corporate network due to a WAN outage, which two statements correctly describe the status of that remote office when H-REAP access points are operating in standalone mode? (Choose two.) A. All Cisco APs with 16 MB of RAM or more can operate as standalone H-REAP. B. All clients will continue association until the respective authentication timers expire. C. If configured, clients using WPA or WPA2 with PSK and locally switched WLANs will continue to operate. D. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using the backup RADIUS server feature.E. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAP-LEAP and EAP-FAST for up to twenty users. F. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAPLEAP, EAP- FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-PEAP for up to twenty users. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48 How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network? A. 25 B. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49 On witch tab on the WLC web interface can the administrator change the AP power level? A. WLAN B. Management C. Controller D. Wireless Correct Answer: D
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The Citrix XenDesktop 5.0 Administration exam (A19) is divided into the following sections:
Identifying Pre-installation Requirements
Setting up the Infrastructure
Configuring a XenDesktop Environment
Managing a XenDesktop Environment
Troubleshooting
Pass4itsure offers the latest Citrix CCA 1Y0-A19 practice test free of charge (23Q&As)
QUESTION 1
Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best
experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance
so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any
XenServer with the least load.
Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and
a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The
Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB
SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration. What is the best write caching method for deploying
800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage
repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel
storage repository.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is
specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the
Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop
site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft
Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles.
Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations.
High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable. A minimum of _______XenDesktop
Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given
the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a XenDesktop
environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines
without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the
Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a
desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual
machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops
with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and
assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase
to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higherC. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the
license server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express
database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the firewall to allow port 3389 in
order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has
already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next
before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a
dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the
appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to
the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate
Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to
log on to the appropriate Controller.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash
content rendered on session hosts?A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual
desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. Which Web Interface site
must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer
during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the
client’s default printer only’.
When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning
services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog.
The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use.
How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to useWinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are
added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image
access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard
image access mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to
USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote
Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB
device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the
Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the
Remote Users group.
Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
Correct Answer: C
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The Citrix XenApp 6.5 Advanced Administration exam is divided into the following sections:
Maintaining Data and Server Integrity
Monitoring and Managing the Environment
Scaling the Environment to Meet Business Needs
Optimizing the Environment
Troubleshooting
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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restoring the data store
B. backing up the data store
C. restarting the XenApp server
D. restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed XenApp
servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK command once the
servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A. Recover the local data store
B. Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C. Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D. Display information about servers in the farm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from Microsoft SQL
Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008 cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors. None of the
XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A. After restarting the data collector
B. After using the DSMAINT command
C. After running the QFARM command
D. After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A. To fix errors on server entries in the data storeB. To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C. To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D. To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of the site to
reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. The administrator now plans to back up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A. Default.ica
B. Web.config
C. Repair.SFO
D. WebInterface.conf
E. LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express
data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration
consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal
number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL
Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Replicating the data store to a second database server
C. Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL serverCorrect Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express
data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration
consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal
number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft SQL
Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Adding an additional zone to the farm
B. Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server Express
data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial configuration
consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location. The administrator added an equal
number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A. Implementing database mirroring
B. Adding an additional zone to the farm
C. Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D. Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure
ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A. Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B. Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C. Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D. Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure ICA
connections from an external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode. The
environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface server to the
XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A. On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B. On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C. On one server and place the server in the internal network
D. On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition
configuration in the attached exhibit,
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct option to
complete the sentence.)
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. the Web Interface
D. the Access Gateway
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode?
(Choose two.)A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web
Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a
monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process
but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully?
(Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled
update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users.
Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required
patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production
servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level.
Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This
package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once.
Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA
connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A XenApp Administrator needs to set up monitoring between a Web Interface server and the back-end
XenApp servers.Which component should the administrator monitor?
A. ICA Listener
B. Citrix IMA Service
C. Local Host Cache
D. Citrix XML Service
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network
administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are
occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session
Reliability are NOT used.
How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample
users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Scenario: A user reports that a hosted desktop session is sporadically slow. To assess the problem, an
administrator reviews the Client Connection Status of the user and observes the information displayed in
the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
What can the administrator assess about the network based on the information in the exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white receive bar indicates there is a problem receiving data.
C. Incoming data is constrained as evidenced by the number of incoming versus outgoing frames.
D. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by four times the number of incoming bytes/frames.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Scenario: A remote user has reported that published applications are occasionally slow or choppy. The
administrator thinks that it may be a network issue, and requests that the user send a Client Connection
Status screenshot which is shown in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
Which conclusion can the administrator make based on the information in the attached exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white bar indicates that there may be a problem with incoming data.
C. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by the number of bytes/frame.
D. An older version of the Citrix Receiver may be causing ICA traffic to function less optimally.Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Scenario: A network team is deploying a proxy server to a specific remote site in order to improve security
and performance of the remote site. All traffic must pass through this proxy server when the new
infrastructure goes live. The administrator must ensure that this happens automatically when a user logs
on to the server through their client device following the upgrade.
To ensure centralized configuration of the appropriate proxy server for the site, the administrator must
enable the ‘Configure Client Proxy Settings’ setting in the ICAClient template and apply it to the site
__________. (Select the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. OU
B. user group
C. computer group
D. default domain controller
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Scenario: When users attempt to connect to a XenApp resource, they are often presented with a warning
asking if they want to overwrite the existing launch.ICA file. Users only experience this when using the
Intranet portal to connect to their XenApp resources. An administrator has identified that the “Launch.ICA”
connection file is NOT deleted when a user disconnects or logs off from their session.
Which tool should the administrator use to ensure that the launch.ICA file is removed when a session is
disconnected or logged off?
A. Citrix AppCenter
B. ICA Listener Configuration
C. Microsoft Group Policy Editor
D. Citrix Web Interface Management Console
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Scenario: A recent security breach occurred in which a member of staff was able to copy company
confidential information onto a device which was then removed from company premises. A Citrix
Adminstrator has been instructed to disable client drive mapping when staff using corporate issued
domain-member laptops attempt to access XenApp resources.
Which section of the ICAClient.ADM template file must the administrator configure to facilitate this request?
A. Client Engine
B. User Experience
C. User Authentication
D. Remoting Client DevicesCorrect Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Scenario: A financial application is hosted on two XenApp servers in a worker group. Users report that they
often have to click the published application icon several times before they can successfully launch it.
An administrator notes that one of the servers was removed from service due to hardware issues. The
other server is fully functional, and it has the necessary resources to handle all the users’ connections.
What could be a reason why users have to attempt to start the application multiple times before they are
successful?
A. Multi-Stream Connections has been enabled.
B. A custom load evaluator incorporates load throttling.
C. Session Reliability has been disabled for remote users.
D. Pass-through authentication is NOT enabled for users accessing through the Citrix Receiver
Enterprise.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Scenario: Users access several published applications, and they report that the logon process initiates
each time an application is accessed. Upon reviewing the published application settings, the administrator
sees the information in the attached exhibits.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibits. Use the tabs to switch the displayed exhibit.
Which setting should be adjusted so that users will experience an improvement in their existing session?
A. Pre-launch
B. Color depth
C. Maximize at startup
D. One instance for each user limit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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The Designing, Deploying and Managing Citrix XenMobile 10 Enterprise Solutions exam is divided into the following sections:
Designing a XenMobile 10 Enterprise Solution
Installing the Components of a XenMobile 10 Enterprise Solution
Configuring and Integrating the Components of a XenMobile 10 Enterprise Solution
Managing and Maintaining the Components of a XenMobile 10 Enterprise Solution
QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer installed XenMobile Mail Manager and needs to ensure that ActiveSync clients are
quarantined if they are NOT enrolled in the XenMobile Server.
Which Default Rule should the engineer choose in this scenario?
A. Allow
B. Block
C. Unchanged
D. Quarantine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to deploy a XenMobile solution for a large organization. The
organization will use XenMobile to manage Android and iOS devices.
To provide resilience, NetScaler appliances will communicate with XenMobile Servers. The engineer has
deployed all necessary infrastructure and opened the required firewall ports. To load balance mobile
device management traffic, the engineer has configured NetScaler to use SSL_Bridge to communicate
with a XenMobile Server cluster.
Which persistence method should the engineer configure to facilitate consistent communication between
the NetScaler and the XenMobile Servers?
A. SSLSESSION
B. CUSTOMSERVERID
C. DESTIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What are two valid reasons for deploying a XenMobile Server in the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)? (Choose
two.)
A. A XenMobile Server is a hardened, FIPS-capable Linux appliance.
B. A XenMobile Server deployed in the DMZ reduces the number of external firewall rules that need to be
implemented.
C. A XenMobile Server deployed in the DMZ reduces the risk of connectivity issues between the
NetScaler and the XenMobile Server.
D. A XenMobile Server deployed in the DMZ can serve as a Secure Ticket Authority (STA) for WorxMail.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is configuring the NetScaler appliance for SSL offloading. The XenMobile
Server is named xms.domain.com.
The following is a list of the certificates installed on the NetScaler:
– *.domain.com – wildcard server certificate
– cacerts.pem – devices certificate
– xms.domain.com – server certificate for the XenMobile Server
– dc-1-CA.cer – Root certificate for *.domain.comThe engineer needs to configure an SSL Load Balancing virtual server for HTTPS 443 bound with
__________ and the XenMobile Server service to use __________. (Choose the correct set of options to
complete the sentence.)
A. *.domain.com and dc-1-CA.cer; HTTP 80
B. *.domain.com and cacerts.pem; HTTPS 443 bound with xms.domain.com
C. *.domain.com and cacerts.pem; HTTP 80
D. *.domain.com and dc-1-CA.cer; HTTPS 443 bound with xms.domain.com
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Scenario: An organization hires a Citrix Engineer to provide guidance on options that would allow
WorxWeb users to access external and internal URLs. The internal IT team plans to keep WorxWeb in
Secure browse mode.
Which two strategies could the engineer recommend to meet the needs of the customer? (Choose two.)
A. Configure traffic policies and profiles and bind them to the NetScaler Gateway.
B. Enable Split Tunneling through the NetScaler Gateway Session Profile.
C. Configure the ‘Proxy’ tab within the NetScaler Gateway Session Profile.
D. Configure a responder policy and profile, and bind them to the NetScaler Gateway.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Which two components are required in order for a Citrix Engineer to use the MDX Toolkit to wrap Windows
Phone applications for production use? (Choose two.)
A. Command-line tools
B. Enterprise certificate from Symantec
C. Android Developer Tools and Android SDK
D. Application enrollment token
E. A keystore certificate
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is deploying XenMobile for an organization. The organization will deploy iOS
and Android devices, and users will be allowed to enroll and use the solution remotely, or from an internal
employee WIFI network. The NetScaler and XenMobile Server are both deployed in the Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ) with no firewall between them.
The engineer has opened the following ports:
– Internet (ANY) -> NetScaler (DMZ) (Inbound) (443)
– XenMobile Server -> Internet (TCP 2195 / 2196) (Outbound)
Which two ports should the engineer ask the Security team to open? (Choose two.)
A. Internet (ANY) -> NetScaler (DMZ) (Inbound) (TCP 8443)
B. Internal WIFI Network -> Internet (TCP 5223) (Outbound)
C. NetScaler -> XenMobile Server (TCP 80)
D. NetScaler -> XenMobile Server (TCP 8443)
E. NetScaler -> License Server (TCP 27000)
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which two actions should a Citrix Engineer take to allow XenMobile to query for unmanaged devices in an
Exchange deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the Mobile Service Provider for ActiveSync.
B. Install XenMobile NetScaler Connector on the Exchange servers.
C. Install XenMobile Mail Manager on all Exchange servers that handle all of the ActiveSync device
commands.
D. Configure the ActiveSync Gateway rules.
E. Perform a deep snapshot.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer prepares to deploy XenMobile Server, ShareFile StorageZone Controllers, and
StoreFront as part of a XenMobile implementation. The engineer needs to ensure that the number of
communication ports opened between the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) and the internal network is kept to a
minimum, and that unauthenticated traffic is NOT allowed through to the internal network. The engineer
intends to achieve these objectives by channeling all traffic into the environment through NetScaler, which
is placed in the DMZ.
Where should the engineer place the components listed below in order to meet the objectives stated in the
scenario?
ShareFile StorageZone Controller
XenMobile Server
StoreFront
A. Place all components on the internal network segment.
B. Place the StorageZone Controllers in the DMZ and all other components on the internal network
segment.
C. Place the XenMobile Server in the DMZ and all other components on the internal network segment.
D. Place StoreFront in the DMZ and all other components on the internal network segment.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which two configurations could be changed only by reinstalling the XenMobile Server using the command-
line interface? (Choose two.)
A. Default Gateway
B. XenMobile hostname
C. Primary DNS server
D. IP address
E. Upgrade option
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11
Which certificate is required to configure ShareFile User Provisioning?
A. xms.domain.com- server certificate
B. Apple Push Notification service (APNs) certificate
C. Third-party SSL Listener certificate
D. xms.domain.com – SAML certificate
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
A Citrix Engineer must provide a group of non-administrator help-desk personnel with access to a set of
features in the XenMobile Console.
What should the engineer do to accomplish this task?
A. Configure AAA groups on the NetScaler Gateway. Allow only these groups to access the console over
port 4443.
B. Create a local group on the XenMobile Server. Allow only access for help-desk personnel.
C. Configure a Delivery Group within the XenMobile Server and deploy the security policies only to the
dedicated group of help-desk personnel.
D. Configure Role-based Access Control (RBAC) and assign only the desired permissions to the Active
Directory group in which the help-desk personnel reside.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Scenario: A customer has attempted to integrate XenMobile with XenApp and XenDesktop. Users connect
to the Worx Store and can see MDX applications but CANNOT see published applications or desktops.
A Citrix Engineer determines a possible cause of this issue is that either port __________ or __________
between the XenMobile Server and StoreFront is NOT open. (Choose the two correct options to complete
the sentence.)
A. 80
B. 443
C. 8443
D. 1494
E. 2598
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a XenMobile Enterprise solution to support approximately 40,000
device connections. The environment must be able to sustain the failure of one node in a cluster at any
given time for redundancy and maintenance purposes. Each server’s specifications include four vCPUs
and 16 GB of RAM.
What is the minimum number of XenMobile Servers that the engineer should recommend as part of this
cluster?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. Two
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide access from WorxWeb to internal corporate HTTP websites
through an internal proxy server. The engineer has configured Single Sign- On to web applications on the
NetScaler.
What are two ways that the engineer could ensure that users are able to access the websites without
being prompted to authenticate more than once? (Choose two.)A. Disable Secure browse mode in the NetScaler session policy.
B. Set WorxWeb Network access to “Tunneled to internal network”.
C. Set WorxWeb VPN mode to “Secure browse”.
D. Add the website to the allowed website list for WorxWeb.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
Which task should a Citrix Engineer perform before installing the StorageZone Controller?
A. Configure the NetScaler Gateway for StorageZone Controller.
B. Configure a server with IIS requirements.
C. Configure the XenMobile Server for SAML authentication.
D. Configure the FTP client to access StorageZone.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which three permissions may a Citrix Engineer control with a Role-based Access Control (RBAC) policy?
(Choose three.)
A. Shared devices
B. ActiveSync account information
C. WorxStore access
D. Selective wipe
E. Notifications
F. Camera access
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 18
A Citrix Engineer, in the process of configuring XenMobile, launches the XenMobile Console for the first
time and is presented with the wizard to continue the configuration.
Which two options could the engineer configure at this stage of the installation? (Choose two.)
A. LDAP service account
B. Database type
C. Apple Push Notification service (APNs) certificate upload
D. XenMobile Cluster configuration
E. Primary DNS server
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 19
Which three options must occur on the virtual server during the initial configuration of the Mobile
Application Management (MAM) load-balancing virtual server? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual server listens over port 8443.
B. The virtual server listens over port 443.
C. The virtual server requires SSL Session persistence.
D. The virtual server requires CUSTOMSERVERID persistence.
E. The “Load Balancing FQDN for MAM” must correspond to the FQDN specified during initial XenMobile
Server installation.
F. The “Load Balancing FQDN for MAM” must correspond to the internal FQDN for the IP address being
used.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 20
A Citrix Engineer is currently in the process of a first-time installation of a XenMobile Server using the
command-line interface.
Which two settings are required when configuring the remote database using SQL authentication?
(Choose two.)
A. Database version
B. Port number
C. Domain name
D. Database name
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 21
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is deploying a XenMobile Proof of Concept (POC) environment. The engineer
imports the XenMobile Management Server onto the hypervisor and performs the initial configuration using
the console. The engineer also enables FIPS mode during the initial configuration.
Which URL should the engineer use to continue the configuration in the XenMobile Console if the engineer
assigns an IP address of format x.x.x.y to the XenMobile Server?
A. https://x.x.x.y:443
B. https://x.x.x.y:8443
C. https://x.x.x.y:4443
D. https://x.x.x.y:9443
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which database type is recommended for the database connection when configuring a XenMobile Server
for the first time in a production deployment using the command-line interface?
A. MySQL
B. Microsoft SQL Server Express
C. PostgreSQL
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Scenario: User password caching must be disabled in an environment due to an information technology
security policy. The security policy also mandates the following:
– Devices should NOT be allowed to be offline for more than 3 days.
– Devices should recognize updates to applications in under 24 hours in the event of critical security
updates.
– Users should conduct application upgrades within 3 days of a device recognizing the availability of an
update.
Which combination of settings should a Citrix Engineer recommend to meet the requirements of the
security policy?
A. AD password for authentication; maximum offline period of 24 hours; and app update grace period of
72 hours (3 days)
B. AD password for authentication; maximum offline period of 72 hours (3 days); and app update graceperiod of 72 hours (3 days)
C. Worx PIN for authentication; maximum offline period of 72 hours (3 days); and app update grace period
of 24 hours
D. Worx PIN for authentication; maximum offline period of 24 hours; and app update grace period of 72
hours (3 days)
E. Worx PIN for authentication; maximum offline period of 72 hours (3 days); and app update grace period
of 72 hours (3 days)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true when the database becomes unavailable in a XenMobile deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. New devices will NOT be able to enroll.
B. The XenMobile Server will go offline.
C. Enrolled devices are selectively wiped.
D. Worx Store access will continue to function without interruption.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer plans to implement XenMobile and integrate it with an existing XenDesktop 7.6
environment. The engineer also plans to use WorxMail in Secure Ticket Authority (STA) mode.
Which statement is true regarding the NetScaler configuration?
A. The XenMobile Server could function as the STA for both WorxMail and XenDesktop, but the
XenDesktop Delivery Controllers CANNOT perform this function.
B. The XenDesktop Delivery Controller could function as the STA for both WorxMail and XenDesktop, but
the XenMobile Server CANNOT perform this function.
C. Either the XenMobile Server or the XenDesktop Delivery Controller could be used as the STA in this
setup.
D. Both the XenMobile Server and the XenDesktop Delivery Controller must be specified as STAs.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer created an automated action to notify users when the Pandora application is
installed on their mobile devices. For testing purposes, the engineer installed the application on a mobile
device but noticed that a notification was NOT received.
Which two XenMobile Server settings should the engineer check to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. POP3
B. SMTP
C. IMAP
D. SMS
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
A Citrix Engineer downloaded the incorrect version of Worx Home on an Android device and is attempting
to uninstall Worx Home, but attempts to uninstall have NOT been successful.
What should the engineer do to successfully uninstall Worx Home?
A. Restart the device.
B. Deactivate Worx Home as an administrator on the device.C. Unenroll the device.
D. Remove all MDX applications from the device.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
How could a Citrix Engineer deploy a common application set to all corporate-managed iOS and Android
devices?
A. Assign users to a custom role.
B. Assign required applications to the AllUsers Delivery Group.
C. Assign a deployment rule to users.
D. Assign an App Access policy to the AllUsers Delivery Group.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
What should a Citrix Engineer do to remove and prevent subsequent access to an unwrapped application
that is already installed by a group of users on their iOS devices?
A. Create an app-uninstall policy and assign it to a Delivery Group.
B. Create an app-uninstall policy and assign it to a deployment package.
C. Create an application blacklist and assign it to a deployment package.
D. Change the application to an optional application and assign it to a Delivery Group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What are two situations in which XenMobile notification templates are used? (Choose two.)
A. As part of a XenMobile automated action to auto-notify when specified criteria are met.
B. As part of the XenMobile enrollment process to auto-notify user post enrollment.
C. As part of a XenMobile Device policy to auto-notify when a XenMobile policy becomes active.
D. As part of the XenMobile client property policies to auto-notify when client settings are delivered to a
device.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 31
Scenario: A customer plans to use the XenMobile Server as the SAML Identity Provider for ShareFile
authentication. SAML authentication should be available for MDX users as well as through the desktop
sync client for Windows and Mac. The customer does NOT plan to use StorageZone Connectors.
What is the minimum configuration that a Citrix Engineer must perform in order to meet the needs of the
customer?
A. Populate the XenMobile Server Settings > ShareFile tab
B. Populate the XenMobile Server Settings > ShareFile tab Create the appropriate NetScaler Gateway
Session profile and policy
C. Populate the XenMobile Server Settings > ShareFile tab Create the appropriate NetScaler Gateway
Session profile and policy Adjust the ‘login URL’ settings on the ShareFile Control Plane
D. Populate the XenMobile Server Settings > ShareFile tab Create the appropriate NetScaler Gateway
Session profile and policy Adjust the ‘login URL’ settings on the ShareFile Control Plane Create a AAA
vServer on NetScaler
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the correct format for defining the XenMobile web enrollment service root URL?A. https://<MS CA Server IP>/Certsrv
B. https://<MS CA Server IP>:4443/Certsrv
C. https://<MS CA Server IP>/Certnew.cer
D. https://<MS CA Server IP>/Certfnsh.asp
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
A Citrix Engineer is preparing to publish a corporate-purchased application to all managed iOS devices.
How could the engineer accomplish this task?
A. By using iOS VPP
B. By using Apple Distribution Program
C. By using Apple Developer Program
D. By using Apple XCode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
A Citrix Engineer could configure User Provisioning to ShareFile for use with XenMobile by configuring the
__________ or the __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSO section in the ShareFile website
B. ShareFile section in the XenMobile Console
C. ShareFile User Management Tool
D. location of the ShareFile public app store link
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
How can a Citrix Engineer require the installation of WorxMail for all users entitled to the application?
A. Modify the Delivery Group configuration.
B. Modify the application MDX policies.
C. Modify the device exclusions.
D. Modify the roles to which the application is published.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What should a Citrix Engineer configure in order to ensure Apple Push Notification service (APNs) works
with outbound proxy communications?
A. Enable outbound proxy communication for APNs communication through the XenMobile Web console.
B. Enable outbound proxy communication for APNs communication through the XenMobile Server
command-line interface.
C. Enable then deploy the XenMobile proxy policy to user devices.
D. Enable outbound XenMobile proxy communication on the NetScaler.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What are two scenarios in which a Citrix Engineer must configure Mobile Service Provider (MSP) for
XenMobile Mail Manager? (Choose two.)
A. To query unmanaged ActiveSync devicesB. For BES 4 and BES 5 integration
C. To control ActiveSync access for unmanaged devices
D. For BES 10 integration
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 38
How could a Citrix Engineer ensure that user devices reflect a change to the Worx PIN security policy?
A. Log off from Worx Home and log on again.
B. Update to the latest version of Worx Home.
C. Refresh the policy in Worx Home.
D. Launch a Worx Home resource.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Scenario: For testing purposes, an Android application developer needs to allow an unwrapped application
to receive data from a wrapped version of WorxMail. WorxMail must remain in a restricted state.
Which action could a Citrix Engineer take to allow the wrapped application to interact with an unmanaged
application while maintaining the prerequisite security standards?
A. Update the Restricted Open-In exception list.
B. Update the document exchange policy to Unrestricted.
C. Update the Public file encryption exclusions list for the application.
D. Update the desired application to the App Interaction Security Group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which XenMobile Windows Phone 8.1 policy should a Citrix Engineer configure in order to deploy Worx
MDX apps to a Windows Phone 8.1 device?
A. Enterprise Hub policy
B. Exchange policy
C. App Inventory policy
D. Sideloading Key policy
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
You cannot delete a standard report.
A. True
B. False
ADM-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
If the company locale is set to US English, all users will have a default locale of US English and this cannot be
changed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What other permissions does the andquot;Manage Analytic Snapshotsandquot; permission require (Select all that apply).
A. Schedule Dashboards
B. Run Reports
C. Manage All Data
D. View Setup and Configuration ADM-201 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 4
When you delete a product, the opportunity associated with that product will be suspended until further action is taken.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Specifying a andquot;running userandquot; in dashboard means:
A. Any user above running user can edit and delete the dashboard
B. Any user below running user can view only their own records
C. Any user can view all records that the running user role can view
D. Only the running user can view the dashboard
ADM-201 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Chatter External license allow users outside the company to join public Chatter groups.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
How many profiles can load in a single list view with Enhanced Profile Management enabled?
A. 300
B. 500
C. 200
D. 1.000
ADM-201 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Manual sharing allows administrators to grant one-off access to individual records, users cannot grant this access even if they own the record.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Define the Read Only Profile.
ADM-201 exam Correct Answer: Can only view records
QUESTION 10
What is not true about sharing Rules?
A. Sharing rules open up access whereas org wide defaults restrict access
B. When u delete a sharing rule, the sharing access created by that rule is automatically removed
C. U can edit the access levels for any sharing rule. You can change the specified groups / roles for the rule
D. Sharing rules apply to all new and existing records owned by the specified role / group members
E. When u modify which users are in a group rule, the sharing rules are re-evaluated to add/remove access as necessary.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which of the following components lets customers find solutions to their cases on their own?
A. Call center
B. Email
C. Chat
D. Customer Portal ADM-201 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Documents count toward Data Storage.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Existing records that meet the Workflow Rule criteria trigger the Rule.
A. True
B. False
ADM-201 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
When setting up an user, the first name of the user is not required.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
When using advanced currency management, can a past exchange rate be changes?
A. Yes
B. No
ADM-201 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What data can you request for in the weekly data export?
A. Only account data
B. Only report data
C. Accounts, opportunities, contacts, cases and solutions
D. All organization data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Users with which Permission can install or uninstall AppExchange packages from the AppExchange
A. Download AppExchange Packages
B. View AppExchange Packages
C. List AppExchange Packages
D. Visit AppExchange Packages
ADM-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What is the maximum number of records to be printed in the Printable View of a list view?
A. 2.000
B. 100
C. 1.000
D. 200
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
A custom lookup field can be added to create a relationship between a standard object and which of the following objects?
A. Users and Custom Objects
B. Leads, Accounts, Contacts and Custom Objects
C. Users, Custom Objects and Campaigns
D. Custom Objects, Contract and Campaigns ADM-201 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What does the default locale impact?
Correct Answer: The format of date and number fields.
QUESTION 21
If you are added to a Sales Team with read/write access you then have the ability to extend sharing on the opportunity to other users.
A. True
B. False
ADM-201 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is true about a Role?
A. Controls the level of visibility that users have to an org. data
B. Role is required while creating Record types
C. A user must be associated to one role
D. A user may be associated to one role
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
A solution can only belong to one category.
A. True
B. False
ADM-201 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What does a Profile Control?
A. Access to Application
B. Record Type Access
C. Permissions
D. Data Visibility
E. Hours of IP Address
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 25
If using Customizable forecasting there is a seperate forecast role hierarchy
A. True
B. False
ADM-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
It is advisable not to overwrite user records with new user data because it would prevent you from tracking a history of past users and the records associated to them?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
If Phil is promoted from a Sales Associate to Senior Sales Exec, and the new sales associate is appointed to take Phil\’s
responsibilities. What are the appropriate steps to transfer Phil\’s account to the new associate?
A. Overwrite Phil\’s User Profile with the new associates information and create a new profile for Phil.
B. Create a new profile for Phil as well as new associate. Deactivate Phil\’s profile with Sales Associate role and transfer
all the accounts, opportunities and leads to the new associate.
C. Associate the new role to Phil\’s existing profile and Transfer all the accounts, opportunities and leads to the new associate.
D. None of the above ADM-201 dumps Correct Answer: B
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Exam B
QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.
To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME, the following SQL statement was written: SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments; The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for this?
A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.
1Z0-071 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit for the structure of the STUDENT and FACULTY tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at the base location. Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types 1Z0-071 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause. In contrast, COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.
QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements?
A. AH INSERT INTO. . .VALUES. . statement can add multiple rows per execution to a table.
B. An UPDATE…SET… statement can modify multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
C. A DELETE FROM ….. statement can remove rows based on only a single condition on a table.
D. An INSERT INTO…VALUES….. statement can add a single row based on multiple conditions on a table.
E. A DELETE FROM….. statement can remove multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
F. An UPDATE…SET…. statement can modify multiple rows based on only a single condition on a table.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database
C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted
1Z0-071 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Gaps in the Sequence
Although sequence generators issue sequential numbers without gaps, this action occurs independent of a commit or rollback. Therefore, if you roll back a statement containing a sequence, the number is lost. Another event that can cause gaps in the sequence is a system crash. If the sequence caches values in memory, those values are lost if the system crashes. Because sequences are not tied directly to tables, the same sequence can be used for multiple tables. However, if you do so, each table can contain gaps in the sequential numbers. Modifying a Sequence If you reach the MAXVALUE limit for your sequence, no additional values from the sequence are allocated and you will receive an error indicating that the sequence exceeds the MAXVALUE. To continue to use the sequence, you can modify it by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement To remove a sequence, use the DROP statement: DROP SEQUENCE dept_deptid_seq;
QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products; What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All viewsand synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
QUESTION 7
You execute the following commands:
For which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?
A. None, because no input required
B. Both the substitution variables ‘hiredate’ and ‘mgr_id\
C. Only ‘hiredate’
D. Only ‘mgr_id’
1Z0-071 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Evaluate the following two queries:
Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 9
The BOOKS_TRANSACTIONStable exists in your database.
Examine the SQL statement:
SQL>SELECT * FROM books_transactionsORDER BY 3;
What is the outcome on execution?
A. The execution tails unless the numeral 3 in the order by clause is replaced by a column name,
B. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the three rows with the lowest values in the key column.
C. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the first three rows.
D. Rows are displayed sorted in ascending order of the values in the third column in the table.
1Z0-071 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.
Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?
A. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price = NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0))
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
The first DROP operation is performed on PRODUCTS table using the following command: DROP TABLE products PURGE; Then you performed the FLASHBACK operation by using the following command: FLASHBACK TABLE products TO BEFORE DROP; Which statement describes the outcome of the FLASHBACK command?
A. It recovers only the table structure.
B. It recovers the table structure, data, and the indexes.
C. It recovers the table structure and data but not the related indexes.
D. It is not possible to recover the table structure, data, or the related indexes. 1Z0-071 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
Exhibit:
Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000 and $2000-5000 in category A. You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value
1Z0-071 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CASE Expression
Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement:
CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2
WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn
ELSE else_expr]
END
QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.
Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o
USING monthly_orders m
ON (o.order_id = m.order_id)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total
DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL)
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which statements are true regarding the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SELECT statement? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The HAVING clause can be used with aggregate functions in subqueries.
B. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows after dividing them into groups.
C. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows before dividing them into groups.
D. The aggregate functions and columns used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT list of the query.
E. The WHERE and HAVING clauses can be used in the same statement only if they are applied to different columns in the table.
1Z0-071 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Examine the commands used to createDEPARTMENT_DETAILS andCOURSE_DETAILS:
You want to generate a list of all department IDs along with any course IDs that may have been assigned to them. Which SQL statement must you use?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Evaluate the following ALTER TABLE statement:
ALTER TABLE orders
SET UNUSED order_date;
Which statement is true?
A. The DESCRIBE command would still display the ORDER_DATE column.
B. ROLLBACK can be used to get back the ORDER_DATE column in the ORDERS table.
C. The ORDER_DATE column should be empty for the ALTER TABLE command to execute successfully.
D. After executing the ALTER TABLE command, you can add a new column called ORDER_DATE to the ORDERS table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
1Z0-071 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT product_name || ‘it’s not available for order’
FROM product_information
WHERE product_status = ‘obsolete’;
You received the following error while executing the above query:
ERROR:
ORA-01756: quoted string not properly terminated
What would you do to execute the query successfully?
A. Enclose the character literal string in the SELECT clause within the double quotation marks.
B. Do not enclose the character literal string in the SELECT clause within the single quotation marks.
C. Use Quote (q) operator and delimiter to allow the use of single quotation mark in the literal character string.
D. Use escape character to negate the single quotation mark inside the literal character string in the SELECT clause.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.
The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company. You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS
D. UNION
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Evaluate the following SELECT statement and view the Exhibit to examine its output:
SELECT constraint_name, constraint_type, search_condition, r_constraint_name, delete_rule, status FROM user_constraints WHERE table_nam Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)
A. In the second column, indicates a check constraint.
B. The STATUS column indicates whether the table is currently in use.
C. The R_CONSTRAINT_NAME column gives the alternative name for the constraint.
D. The column DELETE_RULE decides the state of the related rows in the child table when the corresponding row is deleted from the parent tab
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 21
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the stores table.
You want to display the name of the store along with the address, START_DATE, PROPERTV_PRICE, and the projected property price, which is 115% of the property price. The stores displayed must have START_DATE in the range of 36 months starting from 01- Jan-2000 and above. Which SQL statement would get the desired output? 1Z0-071 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 9
Your company network includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and Microsoft System Center 2012. Your company launches a new customer sales portal. It is critical that all issues identified as potential bugs get addressed in a timely manner. You need to ensure that incident response times are managed across support and development teams. What should you do?
A. Use Service Manager.
B. Create a new incident within System Center and assign it to a bug work item in TFS.
C. Use SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) to query the Operations Manager Data Warehouse and create work items.
D. Use Orchestrator.
70-498 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Service Manager provides an integrated platform for automating and adapting your organization’s IT service management best practices, such as those found in Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF) and Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL). It provides built-in processes for incident and problem resolution, change control, and asset lifecycle management.
Orchestrator provides a workflow management solution for the data center. Orchestrator lets you automate the creation, monitoring, and deployment of resources in your environment.
QUESTION 10
Your development team uses Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 to develop and support an enterprise-wide web application. The system is too large to perform a manual smoke test. You need to ensure that the latest release to production has not broken anything. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create a new build definition with your tests configured for the production URI(s). Run the tests and have TFS report success or failure.
B. Create a new virtual machine in Microsoft Test Manager (MTM) that mirrors your production environment. Create a new build that runs your test projects and have TFS report success or failure.
C. Create a series of CodedUI Tests in Microsoft Visual Studio.
D. Create a complete set of unit test projects within Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Your company’s help desk support team comprises a single individual using an Excel spreadsheet to track tickets. You want to improve the flow of information between the help desk and your development team. You need to ensure that the lead developer receives updates only when new software defects are reported by the help desk. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A.Create a custom list on SharePoint to capture ticket information. Have the lead developer subscribe to an alert for each ticket that is created with a type of “software defect”.
B.Use the System Center 2012 Ticket Manager to capture tickets from the help desk. Enable the ticket integration adapter to push tickets captured in System Center to TFS as bug work items. Have the lead developer subscribe to alerts for his or her assigned work items.
C.Create a team project on your Team Foundation Server with a custom process template to track tickets. For software defects, have the help desk assign the tickets to the lead developer. Have the lead developer review his or her assigned tickets.
D.Publish the Excel spreadsheet to a SharePoint document library. Configure an alert to notify the development lead when the spreadsheet is modified. 70-498 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Your team is setting up a test lab for the test team. Hyper-V is not the company virtualization standard. You are in a planning meeting representing the development team. The information technology (IT) group indicates that they are reluctant to purchase a Hyper-V server and have limited resources available for maintaining test environments. You need to suggest a solution for managing pre-production environments. What should you do?
A. Explain that Standard Environments in Lab Management can be used, but that IT will still have to provision test VMs.
B. Explain that TFS Lab Management is a solution, but requires Hyper-V.
C. Explain that Standard Environments in Lab Management is a solution, but requires physical machines.
D. Explain that Lab Management is a solution and that IT will not need to be involved since Lab Management can be used to self provision test VMs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Standard Environments: Standard environments can contain a mix of virtual and physical machines. You can also add virtual machines to a standard environment that are managed by third-party virtualization frameworks. In addition, standard environments do not require additional server resources such as an SCVMM server. SCVMM environments: SCVMM environments can only contain virtual machines that are managed by SCVMM (System Center Virtual Machine Manager), so the virtual machines in SCVMM environments can only run on the Hyper-V virtualization framework. However, SCVMM environments provide the following automation and management features that are not available in standard environments.
QUESTION 13
You develop a web application that will be automatically deployed to a staging web server on which Internet Information Services (115) 7 is installed. You are defining a new build definition based on the DefaultTemplate.xaml build process template. This build definition will run every night and will publish the web application to a specific location. You provide the following MSBuild arguments in your build definition:
You need to ensure that all prerequisites are installed and configured at the web server to support the build definition. What should you do?
A. Install a self-signed server certificate for the site on which the web application is deployed.
B. Install Team Foundation Power Tools.
C. Install and configure Microsoft Web Deploy and Web Management Services.
D. Create an FTP site for the address staging.mycompany.com
70-498 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You have a web application that should be automatically deployed to a standard environment, including two staging web servers. You USE the LabDefaultTemplate.11.xaml build process template for your build definition. You plan to run automated tests on the application as part of the build process. You need to configure the build definition to deploy the application.
What should you do?
A. Create deployment scripts to perform the deployment. In the Deploy section of the build process template, select Deploy the build and specify the computer names and the scripts to be executed.
B. In the build definition, specify the MS Build arguments as /p:DeployOnBuild=true;DeployTargetPackage.
C. Define separate drop folders for each web server.
D. In the build definition, specify Private Drop Location. Indicate the scripts to be executed after a successful build.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You develop a solution that contains an ASP.NET Model View Controller (MVC) application. You have a continuous integration build named CodeBuild which compiles the application. Your information technology (IT) department provides you with a virtual machine (VM) for testing purposes. The VM has Internet Information Services (IIS) 7.5 installed and configured. Currently, developers publish to the VM directly from Visual Studio when the test team requests a deployment. The current release process is unreliable and burdensome to the development team. You need to create an efficient and flexible method to automate the deployment of the website when requested by the test team. What should you do?
A.Create a Powershell script that copies the website from the build drop folder to the test VM. Check in the script to TFS. Add an activity to the CodeBuild workflow that invokes the PowerShell script.
B.Create a standard environment using the test VM. Create a lab workflow named DeployBuild and select CodeBuild as the source build. Configure a deployment command to copy the website from the build drop folder to the IIS web directory. Instruct the test team to invoke the DeployBuild when they request a new release.
C. Customize the CodeBuild workflow to copy the website from the build drop folder to the IIS web directory on the test VM. Instruct the test team to invoke the CodeBuild when they wish to test.
D. Make the IIS Web Directory on the test VM a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) file share. Modify the CodeBuild, setting this share as the drop folder for the build. Instruct the test team to invoke the CodeBuild when they wish to test.
70-498 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Your development team uses Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 with the Microsoft Framework (MSF) for Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) template. You are reviewing outstanding issues with your team and trying to agree on whether you can mark a particular issue as resolved. You need to determine whether the issue has been resolved. Which two criteria must the team meet before the issue can be marked as resolved? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. All impediments under an issue have been completed.
B. All user stories under an issue have been completed.
C. Stakeholders are satisfied that the issue has been resolved.
D. All tasks under an issue have been completed.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Review Issues for Resolution
After all tasks under an issue have been completed, the stakeholders should decide whether the issue has been resolved.
QUESTION 17
You are using the Microsoft Framework (MSF) for Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Process Improvement 6.0 process template. You are the scrum master. You need to assign product requirements to an iteration. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a test harness to confirm that the business requirements are understood.
B. Find the dependencies among the product requirements.
C. Prioritize each of the requirements.
D. Create a prototype to validate whether or not the requirement can be accomplished.
E. Estimate the cost of each of the requirements.
70-498 exam Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation
Explanation
