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Cisco 700-751 Exam Practice Test Questions 1-13
QUESTION 1 Which statement is true regarding Next Generation Firewall? A. Providing the fastest threat detection in the industry B. Blocking malicious destinations before a connection is ever established C. Facilitating critical protection from constant, dynamic, and rapidly evolving web threats D. Integrating deep visibility, preeminent intelligence and superior protection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard? A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user management. B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a distributed enterprise. C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information. D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 How does Catalyst Access Switching provide two improved workforce experiences? (Choose two.) A. Flexible workspace B. Manual configuration of end devices C. Core data center deployments D. Internet of things, such as flexible workspace (open office, branch office, conference and classrooms) E. Controller-based management Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 Which are two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.) A. Improve Application Performance B. Delivered from the cloud C. Subscription-based model D. Provides protection when on the VPN E. Simple manual installation of hardware Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which are two features of the Cisco 1100 or 4000 series ISR router product lines? (Choose two.) A. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM B. Advanced LTE backup connectivity offering network resiliency for business continuity C. Cloud-based hardware management D. Limited connectivity options E. 50 to 200 Mbps WAN connections with rich branch services – the same services found at HQ Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 Which is a key solution for a Cisco small to medium-sized business router to enable the transport industry? A. Network based backup solution for mission critical application B. Integrated secure Wi-Fi to support guest devices C. Small form factor makes it easy to install and service D. Provide first line of defense against threats Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)? A. 100-120 B. 10-120 C. 1000-1200 D. 10-200 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.) A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of potential threats B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly detection and network telemetry E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate deployment and unify management Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9 Which two statements best highlight Cisco\\’s commitment to partners and customers? (Choose two.) A. Cisco leads in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced machine learning platform. B. Cisco\\’s investment in RandD to maintain first-to-market approach for innovative technologies and solutions. C. Cisco shapes the future of the Internet by creating opportunity for investors and ecosystem partners. D. Cisco has the most comprehensive portfolio in the networking industry to help connect, collaborate, compute, and protect your customer\\’s business. E. Cisco works closely with leading research institutions and lets them takes the lead in the development of enterprise security solutions. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 What does Cisco\\’s Enterprise class SMB switch web UI provide? A. Interactive dashboard for key metrics at-a-glance B. Secure and Consistent onboarding experience C. Provision, Install and Monitor via APIC-EM Zero-touch Plug and Play D. Cisco Prime Infrastructure manageability Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two functions are provided by Scale out / compute intensive applications C4200 and C125 M5? (Choose two.) A. Distributed databases B. Microprocessor design C. Cloud computing D. AI/ML with dense GPUs E. Low-frequency trading transactions Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 Which two are key benefits of 3504 controllers? (Choose two.) A. Supports 150 APs and 3000 clients B. Supports 1Gbps throughput C. Available in various form factors D. Supports HA with SSO capability E. Supports modular power supply Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 Which two statements proves that Cisco USC C125 M5 rack server node provides more performance? (Choose two.) A. 188% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers B. 20% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers C. 20% more storage per rack than our most dense rack servers D. 50% more servers per rack than our most dense rack servers E. 128% more cores per rack than our most dense rack servers Correct Answer: BE
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QUESTION 1 Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? (Choose two.) A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g 642-732 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done? A. once for each band B. once for each protocol C. once per deployment D. once using each data collection type 642-732 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready? A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges? A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm 642-732 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 What is a typical attenuation value for a cinder block wall? A. 3dB B. 4dB C. 6dB D. 12dB Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A Cisco engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco 1250 series 802.11n access point with a maximum throughput on 2.4 GHz that is limited to 72 Mbps. Why might the AP be operating in a limited capacity? A. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3af B. the switch providing PoE supports 802.3at C. the 2.4 GHz bandwidth is 20 MHz wide D. the 2.4 GHz is 40 MHz wide 642-732 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 What RF phenomenon results from a presence of metallic I-beams, conveyor belts, chain- link fences, and metallic shelves found in a warehousing environment? A. multipath B. free path loss C. absorption D. scattering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation. If the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration, what is the coverage area from the AP? A. 40 feet B. 80 feet C. 100 feet D. 150 feet E. 225 feet 642-732 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 What two tools can an engineer use to verify RF data rates and coverage after installation? (Choose two.) A. Cisco WCS Planning Mode B. Cisco WCS Location Readiness Tool C. Cisco WCS Voice Audit Report D. AirMagnet Passive Survey Mode E. AirMagnet Active Survey Mode F. AirMagnet Planner Mode Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 Which two types of information should be included in the installation inventory portion of the post installation report? (Choose two.) A. All AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials B. The number and type of all WLAN clients and tags C. The names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the WLAN D. Results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool 642-732 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12 A customer has requested site surveys for data, voice, video, and location services for their location. The customer will be using RFID tags extensively. Which type of site survey should be conducted? A. data B. voice C. video D. location-based services E. bridging F. multi-survey Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 An engineer is performing a site survey for a 5 GHz mesh wireless network. The customer requires 300 Mbps data rates per radio, 2×3 MIMO technology, and legacy beamforming. What Cisco access point should be recommended? A. 1510 B. 1522 C. 1524 D. 1552 642-732 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 Which wireless tool would be most useful in planning a WLAN solution prior to performing a site survey? A. Ekahau Survey B. Air Magnet Survey C. Air Magnet Wi-Fi Analyzer D. Cisco Spectrum Expert E. Cisco WCS Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15 An engineer wants to provide coverage between warehouse shelving stocked with bulk metal materials. What antenna would be adequate for performing this survey? A. 5.5 dBi omni down tilt B. 17 dBi grid C. 2.2 dBi omni D. 8.5 dBi patch 642-732 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16 A new client has contacted you to design a WLAN solution for a new 30-foot high-bay warehouse that will use high-lift electric forklifts. The warehouse is currently empty except for storage racks. The customer is planning to continue to use their existing wireless barcode scanners and also deploy wireless IP phones for communication. Which four issues do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey? (Choose four.) A. Which protocol do the wireless barcode scanners and IP phones need to use? B. What is the proximity to other warehouses? C. Which types of goods will be stored in the warehouse and what is the expected average warehouse capacity? D. Do any planned WLC locations exceed 100 meter cable distances? E. Is there sufficient clearance between the roof and the top of the racks for placing APs? F. What is the expected humidity level in the warehouse on average during the year? G. Are there any secure enclosures that use chain-link fence that will require wireless access? Correct Answer: ACEG
QUESTION 17 What is the result of a Cisco 1250 AP deployed for 802.11a/b/g/n using optimized power (16.8 W) with software version 7.0? A. One spatial stream per radio B. One spatial stream on 2.4 GHz and two spatial streams on 5 GHz C. One spatial steam on 5 GHz and two spatial streams on 2.4 GHz D. Reduced power on both radios E. Reduced power on 2.4 GHz radio only F. Reduced power on 5 GHz radio only 642-732 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18 Refer to the exhibit.
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? A. Normal 802.11b activity B. Normal 802.11g activity C. Microwave oven interference D. Video camera interference E. Bluetooth device interference Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen? A. Normal 802.11g activity B. Microwave oven interference C. Video camera interference D. Bluetooth device interference E. RF jammer 642-732 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21.You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.) A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer’s network. B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library Share. C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library share. D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording Library share. E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore application. 642-732 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 22.A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server. Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.) A. when the remote user’s dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different subnet B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office C. when the remote user’s dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different subnet D. when the IP Office’s DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to obtain an IP Address Automatically Answer: A,C
QUESTION 23.A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose three.) A. The user profile in Manager has “199” entered as the user name. B. The phone is set for “Do Not Disturb”. C. The user’s “Multi Line Option” is set to “Answer Pre-select”. D. The user mailbox is set to “Blank” under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging. E. The user’s profile has “System Phone” is set to “On”. 642-732 vce Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 24.Click the Exhibit button. A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the public network via the head office. How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit? A. X – Network — Y – Fallback B. X ?Fallback — Y – Fallback C. X ?Network — Y – Unsuitable D. X ?Fallback — Y – Unsuitable Answer: C
QUESTION 25.Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose two.) A. RAS B. FastStart C. Voice Networking D. Professional License Enabled 642-732 exam Answer: C,D
QUESTION 26.How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive? A. 1MB per minute B. 500KB per minute C. 2MB per minute D. 1.5MB per minute Answer: A
QUESTION 27.Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.) A. POP 3 B. SMTP C. MAPI D. IMAP 642-732 dumps Answer: B,C
QUESTION 28.A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible cause for this? A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1. B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3. C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set. D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always busy. Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant? A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication. B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication. C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB. D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication. E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform? A. single sign-on B. IPv6 transport (WAN) C. 2-factor authentication D. license enforcement E. reporting F. non-Ethernet interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.) A. Centralized device authentication B. Secure Elastic Connectivity C. Application Quality of Experience D. Operations E. Cloud First F. Execution Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. It distributed deployments, failover from primary to secondary Policy Administration Nodes happens automatically. B. The number of logs that ISE can retain is determined by your disk space. C. ISE supports IPv6 downloadable ACLs. D. ISE can detected endpoints whose addresses have been translated via NAT. E. ISE supports up to 100 Policy Services Nodes. F. In two-nodes standalone ISE deployments, failover must be done manually. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.) A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible. B. Show the customer how to integrate ISE into DNA Center at the end of the demo. C. Focus on business benefits. D. Keep the demo at a high level. E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6 Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers? (Choose two.) A. provides network access control B. helps them stop and contain real-time threats C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. providing VPN access for any type of device B. providing information about every device that touches the network C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies F. allocating resources Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 8 Which three options focus of the current digital business era? (Choose three.) A. IoT scale B. connectivity C. virtualized services D. automation E. centralized enterprise and web applications F. Human scale Correct Answer: ACD
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QUESTION 10 Which is a benefit of a cloud-based SD-WAN deployment? A. might be required for compliance with industry standards B. controller availability never an issue C. security never an issue D. agility of change dependent only on your own internal IT processes E. instant scale Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11 Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the fabric? A. edge nodes B. control plane nodes C. intermediate nodes D. border nodes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history? A. advent of cloud computing B. pace of change C. pervasive use of mobile devices D. advent of IoT Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealthwatch? A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node B. pXGrid Controller C. Policy Administration Node D. Inline Posture Node Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 For which purpose can Windows management instrumentation be used? A. Remote viewing of a computer B. Remote blocking of malware on a computer C. Remote reboot of a computer D. Remote start of a computer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is one of the advantages of the mandatory access control (MAC) model? A. Easy and scalable. B. Stricter control over the information access. C. The owner can decide whom to grant access to. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are public key standards? A. IPSEC B. PKCS #10 C. PKCS #12 D. ISO33012 E. AES Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 A zombie process occurs when which of the following happens? A. A process holds its associated memory and resources but is released from the entry table. B. A process continues to run on its own. C. A process holds on to associate memory but releases resources. D. A process releases the associated memory and resources but remains in the entry table. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization? A. When moving to a different role B. Upon termination of the employment C. As described in the asset return policy D. When the laptop is end of lease Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 In which technology is network level encrypted not natively incorporated? A. Kerberos B. ssl C. tls D. IPsec Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Drag the data source on the left to the left to the correct data type on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 8 Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.) A. It can view encrypted files. B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS. C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level. D. It can be deployed at the perimeter. E. It uses signature-based policies. F. It works with deployed firewalls. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9 At which OSI layer does a router typically operate? A. Transport B. Network C. Data link D. Application Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which description is an example of whaling? A. When attackers target specific individuals B. When attackers target a group of individuals C. When attackers go after the CEO D. When attackers use fraudulent websites that look like legitimate ones Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which purpose of a security risk assessment is true? A. Find implementation issues that could lead to vulnerability B. Notify the customer of a vulnerability C. Set the SIR value of a vulnerability D. Score a vulnerability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true? A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network. B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities. C. Identify, remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities. D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 As per RFC 1035 which transport layer protocol is used for DNS zone transfer? A. HTTP B. RDP C. UDP D. TCP Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 In locally managed mode, what is the maximum number of 720p HD video ports in a Cisco MSE 8710 Cisco TelePresence Server cluster running version 4.0? A. 48 B. 60 C. 72 D. 84 E. 96 F. 108 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 An end user reports that when making B2B calls, the calls are connecting, however, no audio or video is being received by either party. Local calls work fine. Which two areas must be investigated? (Choose two.) A. VCS traversal zone B. endpoint traversal mode C. far end camera control D. firewall configurations E. DNS configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco TelePresence protocols are supported for content sharing in point-to-point and multipoint meetings? (Choose two.) A. BFCP B. ICE C. Switched Presentation D. Auto Collaboration E. H.323 Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60? A. Diagnostics B. Configuration C. Call Control D. Maintenance E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 A customer is looking for a video conference solution that includes video streaming. What are the two devices that when used together, provide streaming capability? (Choose two.) A. VCS B. TCS C. TS D. MCU 4500 E. TMS Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.) A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 A customer is requesting a distance learning environment that provides live video of the instructor and the students, a physical document, and a PC presentation, all combined in one video feed. The instructor should be able to customize the layout from a PC. To fulfill this request, which two components are required? (Choose two.) A. Cisco TelePresence Codec C90 B. Cisco TelePresence MCU C. Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 D. Cisco TC Console E. four cameras Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11 Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy? A. Cisco Video Communications B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite C. Cisco Digital Media Manager D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
Which kind of profile is shown? A. TC WebAdmin H.323 Profile B. TC WebAdmin SIP Profile C. TX WebAdmin SIP Profile D. TC WebAdmin Conference Profile Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side? A. reset trunk on near side B. reset trunk on far side C. reset trunk on far and near side D. restart call manager service Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 2 What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks? A. 100 ms B. 150 ms C. 200 ms D. 300 ms Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 3 An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications? A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone. B. Select the globe button on the IP phone. C. Select Settings > User Preferences. D. Select Settings > Device Configuration. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 4 Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two) A. dial-peer voice 910 pots B. dial-peer voice 9 pots C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip D. destination pattern is incorrect E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer Correct Answer: BF Explanation Explanation/Reference: The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
QUESTION 5 An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active? A. LDAP System Configuration B. LDAP Directory C. End User Configuration D. LDAP Authentication E. Route Plan Report Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6 A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? A. network router B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node C. network switch D. IP phones E. SIP gateway Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 7 User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo? A. user A handset B. user B headset C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 8 What is needed to support SIP Early Media? A. Media Termination Point B. Transcoder C. Annunciator D. Conference Bridge E. DSP F. Route List Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 9 Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.) A. greedy B. TCP retransmits C. UDP priority D. delay sensitive E. drop insensitive F. benign G. benign or greedy Correct Answer: CDF Explanation
QUESTION 10 With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages? A. It never retransmit the rekey messages B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails E. it always retransmit the rekey message Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 11 In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 12 After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles? A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN. B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN. C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN. D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 13 An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system? A. SCCP B. SIP C. MGCP D. H.323 Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 14 How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress? A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace. C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces. D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace. E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones. Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: pressing the button (?) twice in quick succession during an active call. The display shows you receive and transmit statistics for the call Link: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_Unified_Communications_–_One-Way_Audio
QUESTION 15 Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.) A. Round-trip time B. QoS markings C. Bandwidth D. Ethernet E. Fibre F. Token ring Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 16 Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection? A. .xls B. .doc C. .csv D. .pdf Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 17 To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.) A. calling search space B. partitions C. route groups D. SIP trunk E. gateway Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 18 An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first? A. IP phone B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources C. voice gateways D. network routers and switches Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 19 Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.) A. QoS configuration tool B. mean opinion score tool C. bulk administration toolD. jitter compensation tool E. rFactor tool Correct Answer: BE Explanation
QUESTION 20 Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. Bulk administration tool B. LDAP C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL D. Outlook E. Presence F. Cisco Compatible Extensions Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 21 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed? A. Gateway utilization B. Gateway summary C. Gateway detail D. Gateway and line group utilization Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22 Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone C. voice-enabled message navigation D. voice-enabled dialing to external users E. automated attendant capabilities F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
QUESTION 23 A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication? A. account ID B. password C. PIN D. digest credentials Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 24 An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.) A. It requires the use of schedules for backups. B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password. C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted. D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out. E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported. F. SSL is used between the master and local agents. Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone A. Media Resource Group B. Conference Resource list C. Conference Bridge D. Media Resource Group List Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 26 End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying? A. FECC B. DTMF C. FEC D. PIP Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 27 A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone? A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone. B. Select Settings > Applications. C. Select Settings > Network > Applications. D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.) A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone. B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services. C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call. D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone. Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/sip/configuration/12- 4t/sip-12-4t-book/voi-sip-dtmf.html#GUID-A23A02E9-3FD2-4C3A-8ED4-78BDC82AAEAE
QUESTION 29 A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.) A. First Name B. User ID C. PIN D. Telephone Number E. Password F. Last Name Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 30 A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking. Which option is one cause of this noise? A. QoS B. LoPS C. VAD D. EPL E. SRST Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 31 A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely? A. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > general settings. B. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > phone > phone settings. C. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules. D. Log in to https://<ipaddressofpublisher>/ucmuser > voicemail. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 32 A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used? A. RTP B. DHCP C. CDP D. SIP Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cuipph/7905g_7912g/5_0/sip/englis h/administration/guide/5_0/LowPovr.html#wp1066491
QUESTION 33 Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with clients who are outside the corporate network? A. Cisco Extension Mobility B. Cisco TMS C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination D. Cisco Unified RTMT E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34 Several users in the same Call Manager group reported that they receive a fast busy tone when they go off hook. They reported that the issue went away after a few minutes. Where should the voice systems administrator begin troubleshooting? A. SIP gateway B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber C. network cable D. 7945 IP phone Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 35 A network administrator wants a new employee to download the RTMT tool. Which menu option supports this function? A. Bulk Administration > Job Scheduler > Plugins B. Application > Plugins C. Call routing > Plugins D. Server > Region > Plugins Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/using-rtmt- to-monitor-cisco-unity-connection-and-cucm/ta-p/3122211
QUESTION 36 An administrator must keep CDR data for a longer period of time and wants to modify the configured value of the CDR/CMR Files Presentation Duration Days). Which menu options does the engineer navigate? A. Unified CM Administration > System > Enterprise Parameters B. Unified Serviceability > Tools > Serviceability Reports Archive C. Unified CM Administration > Call Routing > Route Plan Report D. Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Management Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 37 What is the maximum amount of packet loss an engineer should allow for voice traffic on an IP network? A. 5 percent B. 2 percent C. 3 percent D. 1 percent Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 38 A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot? A. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unity Connection B. Visual voicemail IP phone service in Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. SIP trunk between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unity Connection D. IP phone network connectivity Correct Answer: CExplanation
QUESTION 39 A manager is generating bill reports for a particular user. Which navigation sequence must be used for this task? A. Bills > Department B. User Reports > Bills > Department C. Bill > Individual D. User Reports > Bills > Individual Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/service/8_5_1/car/CAR/carus erb.pdf
QUESTION 40 Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. MAC B. IP C. E.164 D. SIP URI Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 41 A voicemail user reports that he cannot access Cisco Unity Connection from the IP phone message button. Which option must you perform to resolve the problem? A. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Advanced Features > Voicemail to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile B. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the device has the correct voicemail profile C. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to Device > Phone to confirm that the directory number has the correct voicemail profile D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, navigate to User Management > End User to confirm that the user has the correct voicemail profile E. In Cisco Unity Connection, navigate to Users > Users to confirm that the user web password is correct. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 42 Which two user attributes must be defined in Cisco Unity Connection before the users can be added? (Choose two.) A. display name B. alias C. time zone D. class of service E. dial plan Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/11x/administration/guide /b_cucsag/b_cucsag_chapter_010101.html
QUESTION 43 Users are complaining about dropped calls, so a network engineer needs to troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communications Manager to view concurrent calls and dropped calls. Where does the engineer generate such reports? A. Cisco Unified Serviceability B. Cisco Unified OS Administration C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 44 An engineer must ensure that user data is maintained in lightweight directory access protocol and copied to Cisco Unity Connection, but Cisco Unity Connection-specific data is locally maintained in the Cisco Unity Connection database. Which user creation option accomplishes this task? A. bulk administration B. import from CUCM via AXL C. import from LDAP D. manual creation Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/11x/administration/guide /b_cucsag/b_cucsag_chapter_01001.html
QUESTION 45 DRAG DROP
QUESTION 46 DRAG DROP
QUESTION 47 DRAG DROP
QUESTION 48 DRAG DROP Drag from the left to correct steps.
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria. Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay. Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence. Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR). Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ). LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class. Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP
Explanation Explanation/Reference: Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access. We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship. The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP
QUESTION 4 DRAG and DROP
QUESTION 5 Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
QUESTION 6 The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right.
QUESTION 7 Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
QUESTION 8 Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
QUESTION 9 Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
QUESTION 10 Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.
QUESTION 11 Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right
QUESTION 12 Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right
QUESTION 13 Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer.
QUESTION 14 Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement on the right.
QUESTION 15 Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.
QUESTION 16 Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
QUESTION 17 Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right
QUESTION 18 Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
QUESTION 19 Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
QUESTION 20 Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
QUESTION 21 Drag and drop the top-down approach process step 1 – 4 !
QUESTION 22 DRAG DROP Match the bandwidth usage optimization technique on the left with its definition on the right.
Explanation Explanation/Reference: + limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size+ reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data compression+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by applications: queuing+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP precedence): traffic policing
QUESTION 23 Which H.323 protocol monitors calls for factors such as packet counts, packet loss, and arrival jitter? A. H.225 B. H.245 C. RAS D. RTCP Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 24 When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does the Enterprise Teleworker module establish its connection? A. Building Core B. Building Access C. Enterprise Branch D. Enterprise Data CenterE. WAN/Internet Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 25 The BodMech online fitness organization specializes in creating fitness plans for senior citizens. The company recently added a health-products retail inventory. Which E-Commerce module device will allow customers to interact with the company and purchase products? A. application server B. database server C. public server D. web server E. NIDS appliance F. SMTP mail server Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 26 Which two wireless attributes should be considered during a wireless site survey procedure? (Choose two.) A. encryption B. channel C. authentication D. power E. SSID Correct Answer: BD Explanation
QUESTION 27 You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and need to obtain the following router information: Interfaces running processes IOS image being executed Which command should you use? A. show version B. show tech-support C. show startup-config D. show running-config E. show processes memory Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which of these domain-of-trust security statements is correct? A. Segments within a network should have the same trust models. B. An administrator should apply consistent security controls between segments. C. Communication between trusted entities needs to be carefully managed and controlled. D. Segment security policy decisions are based on trust. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 29 When collecting information about a customer’s existing network, which two sources will provide the most accurate data? (Choose two.) A. traffic analysis B. customer interview C. customer-supplied server list D. existing network topology diagram E. configurations obtained from network equipment Correct Answer: AE Explanation
QUESTION 30 Which modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? Select all that apply. A. Teleworker B. WAN/MAN C. Server Farm D. E-Commerce E. Internet Connectivity F. Remote Access/VPN Correct Answer: BDEF Explanation
QUESTION 31 Which H.323 protocol is responsible for the exchanging of capabilities and the opening and closing of logical channels? A. H.225 B. H.245 C. RAS D. RTCP Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which one of the following represent correct IPv6 Global Unicast address format? A. 48bit(Global Prefix)+16bit(Subnet ID)+64bit(Interface ID) B. 16bit(Subnet ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix)+64bit(Interface ID) C. 64bit(Interface ID)+16bit(Subnet ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix) D. 64bit(Interface ID)+ 48bit(Global Prefix)+16bit(Subnet ID) Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 33 What is the maximum number of switches in VSS? A.2B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34 What DNS entry to use for WLC with firmware version 6.0 or later so an Access Point can determine the controller’s IP address? A. DNS A record with controller’s hostname B. DHCP option 43 C. cisco-capwap-controller D. cisco-lwapp-controller Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 35 Two companies that want to connect with multiple providers vendors, what protocol is the proper one to use? A. BGP B. IS-IS C. OSPF D. EIGRP Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 36 Which subnet mask should you use on point-to-point links to avoid wasting IP addresses? A. 255.255.255.252 B. 255.255.255.250 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.248 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 37 Which virtualization deployment an engineer will execute to separate to accomplish security policies? A. Same corporate Network with NAC capabilities. B. Something using VLANs Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 38 What statement about EVN is true? A. Support RIP B. Support OSPFV3 C. Required LDP D. Support as many as 32 virtual networks per device Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 39 Consider the reservation of IP Addressing what mask you will use in a point to point connection between two Buildings? A. 255.255.252.0 B. 255.255.255.252 C. 255.255.255.254 Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 40 What describes the link performance? A. Bandwidth B. Utilization C. Availability Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_performance
QUESTION 41 What tool would you use to capture, segregate and analyse IP traffic? A. Protocol Analyser B. NetFlow Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 42 What tool would you use to decode protocols? A. Protocol Analyser B. NetFlow C. Spectrum Analyser Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 43 What should be considered when scaling EIGRP? (Choose three) A. CPU B. Peers C. Query scope D. Interface Bandwidth E. Memory F. IP Address Correct Answer: BCF Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: http://lostintransit.se/2013/11/23/eigrp-network-design/
QUESTION 44 Which two high-level design components are included in Unified Wireless network? A. Local B. Cisco FlexConnect C. Deterministic D. N+1 E. Dynamic Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 45 How to reduce the size of a routing table? (Choose two): A. NAT B. Summarization C. Static routes D. VLAN Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 46 What query should you make if you want to find all objects of a particular type in an MIT tree? A. mid-tree-level B. class-level C. object-level D. tree-level Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 47 What will extend a trust boundary (there is switch interface configuration with separate voice VLAN and data VLAN configured where the phone is connected to, also small diagram showing endpoint (host), IP Phone, Access Switch, Distribution Switch, Core Switch and Data Centre Aggregation switch)? A. Multiple layers PC B. IP Phone C. Access Switch D. Distribution Switch E. Core Switch Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 48 What kind of servers you should place in DMZ? A. WWW B. FTP C. DHCP D. TACACS+ E. NFP Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 49 What access policies to set up for remote VPN access (Choose three)? A. Admins are centrally authenticated with full network access B. Partners are centrally authenticated with access limited by use of ACLs C. Employees are centrally authenticated with access limited by use of ACLs D. Admins are locally authenticated with full network access E. Partners are centrally authenticated with full access F. Employees are centrally authenticated with full access Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 50 An organization needs to implement isolated logical structure due to compliance regulations. What complex access control network virtualization method can it use? A. The IT organization creates a quarantine network for end points that do not meet the posture assessment requirements B. The IT organization creates a separate guest network for wireless and wired clients C. The IT organization acts as a client serving different, isolated departments Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 51 What are two advantages of a modular design? (Choose two) A. Increased scalability B. Security can be implemented at every module C. Increased redundancy as you can add modules D. Hierarchy included in design Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: References: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1073230&seqNum=2 https://thwack.solarwinds.com/docs/DOC-175763
QUESTION 52 What is the best point to deploy the IPS, not to have false positives, since the traffic is already filtered?
A. Inline before the firewallB. Inline after the firewall C. Passive of the firewall D. Passive of the Switch Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/intrusion-prevention-systems-ids/correct- placement-of-ids-ips-in-network-architecture/td-p/2632437
QUESTION 53 What VPN tunneling technology supports multicast? A. DMVPN spoke-to-spoke B. IPSec direct tunnelling hub-and-spoke C. Easy VPN D. IPSec direct tunnelling spoke-to-spoke Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 54 Which one of the following is “synchronous link” design? A. SSL VPN over serial cable modem B. Bonded T1s C. Internet VPN D. MPLS VPN Correct Answer: B Explanation
Refer to the exhibit. Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure does this network map emphasize? A. network services B. network protocols C. the OSI data link layer D. network applications Correct Answer: D Explanation
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QUESTION 1 What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies? A. 10 B. 8 C. 1 D. X Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data? A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site? A. Cloud B. Converged C. Centralized Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP? A. show logging B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC? A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC) B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3) A. 52 B. 136 C. 124 D. 161 Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 7 What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3) A. RSSI cell edge of -25B. RSSI cell edge of -16 C. SNR of 25 D. Cell Overlap of 20% E. RSSI -67 Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8 What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? (Choose 3) A. Bluetooth Headset B. Microwave Ovens C. Analog Wireless Camera D. AdHoc Wireless Camera E. AdHoc Hotspot Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9 What are reqs for VoWLAN? A. RSSI -67 B. SNR 25 C. 20% overlapping cells Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps? A. SNR 25 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain? A. 1 B. 8 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement? A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group. B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building? A. Passive B. Active C. Planning Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3) A. RSSI -67 B. SNR 25 C. 20% cell overlapping Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15 Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP? A. Wireless B. Management C. Controller D. Monitor. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming? A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS? A. TFTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain? A. 1 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network? A. 25 B. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.) A. AES B. CCKM C. EAP-FAST D. EAP-TLS E. PEAP F. WEP Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 21 Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers? A. show config B. show run config C. show run-config D. show running config E. show running-config Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 22 Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.) A. Authority ID B. Authority ID Information C. Client Key D. PAC E. Server Key F. TTL for PAC G. Monitor Key H. NTP Source Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 23 Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point? A. debug dot11 B. show arp switch C. show client detailed D. show exclusionlist Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24 Which statement applies to TKIP? A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations? A. 16 dBm B. 17 dBm C. 20 dBm D. 30 dBm Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26 How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version? A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers. B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments. D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band? A. Complimentary Code Keying B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero? A. Clients are excluded indefinitely. B. Clients are never excluded. C. Client exclusion is disabled. D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address. E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. What is the next step the AP performs? A. DHCP option 43. B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain. C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast. D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast. E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC? A. AP priming B. defining a master controller C. DHCP Option 6 D. DHCP Option 43 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern? A. dBi B. dBm C. mW D. GHz Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a standards? A. BPSK B. CCK C. DSSS D. OFDM Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1? A. config t interface BVI1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 B. config t interface BVI1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 C. config t interface FastEthernet1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 D. config t interface Dot11Radio0 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1E. config t interface FastEthernet1 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 F. config t interface Dot11Radio0 ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192 exit ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.) A. operating RF channel B. SSID names C. transmit power levels D. switch port parameters E. antenna gain Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35 Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.) A. antenna bandwidth B. antenna gain C. cable loss D. receiver sensitivity E. SSID F. transmission power Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 36 Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA? A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources. B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client. C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase. D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless communications between client and AP. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers? A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum C. Narrow Band Frequency D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38 Which two statements best describe LWAPP? (Choose two.) A. Cisco proprietary B. communication between the AP and client C. communication between the AP and the WLC D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning E. used to encrypt control and data packets Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39 What is fading? A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate. B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss. C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves. D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor. E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information. F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.) A. AAA Server B. Authenticatee C. Authenticator D. Authentication Server E. Supplicant Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41 Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.) A. Eavesdropping B. Denial of Service C. War Driving D. Man-in-the-Middle Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 42 Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform? (Choose two.) A. antenna selection B. AP address assignment C. channel assignment D. encryption method assignment E. transmit power control Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43 In general, what is the difference in transmit power between an AP operating at Tx Power Level 1 and the same AP operating at Tx Power Level 3? A. 2 dB B. 3 dB C. 6 dB D. 11 dB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes? A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller. B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational. C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known. D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45 Why are wireless analog video signals that are operating in the 2.4-GHz band particularly harmful to Wi-Fi service? A. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR. B. Analog video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle. C. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band. D. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46 What security benefit is enabled by using Management Frame Protection? A. Provides encryption of administrator sessions between a wireless client and a wireless LAN controller. B. Protects the network infrastructure from denial-of-service attacks that attempt to flood the network with associations and probes. C. Prevents the formation of client ad hoc networks within the RF coverage domain. D. Detects network reconnaissance probes, like those used by tools like NetStumbler, that attempt to discover the wireless network topology. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47 The corporate network locates all RADIUS servers at the centralized data center for authentication. The remote offices use access points operating in H-REAP mode using v5.0 code with various local and central switch WLANs. When a remote office has lost connectivity to the main corporate network due to a WAN outage, which two statements correctly describe the status of that remote office when H-REAP access points are operating in standalone mode? (Choose two.) A. All Cisco APs with 16 MB of RAM or more can operate as standalone H-REAP. B. All clients will continue association until the respective authentication timers expire. C. If configured, clients using WPA or WPA2 with PSK and locally switched WLANs will continue to operate. D. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using the backup RADIUS server feature.E. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAP-LEAP and EAP-FAST for up to twenty users. F. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAPLEAP, EAP- FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-PEAP for up to twenty users. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48 How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network? A. 25 B. 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49 On witch tab on the WLC web interface can the administrator change the AP power level? A. WLAN B. Management C. Controller D. Wireless Correct Answer: D
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What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch . You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists. When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the information appears in the running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down, and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output. The switch stack retains the provisioned configuration in the running configuration whether or not the provi- sioned switch is part of the stack. You can save the provisioned configuration to the startup configuration file by entering the copy running-config startup-config privileged EXEC command. The startup configuration
file ensures that the switch stack can reload and can use the saved information whether or not the provisioned switch is part of the switch stack. Effects of Adding a Provisioned Switch to a Switch Stack When you add a provisioned switch to the switch stack, the stack applies either the provisioned configuration or the default configuration. Table 5-1 lists the events
that occur when the switch stack compares the provisioned configuration with the provisioned switch. Table 5-1 Results of Comparing the Provisioned Configuration with the Provisioned Switch
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers and the switch types of the provisioned switch the provisioned configura match. matches the stack member num- tion to the provisioned ber in the provisioned configura- switch and adds it to the tion on the stack, and stack.
2. If the switch type of the provi sioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configura tion on the stack.
The stack member num- 1. If the stack member number The switch stack applies bers match but the switch of the provisioned switch the default configuration to types do not match. matches the stack member num- the provisioned switch and ber in the provisioned configuration on the stack, but adds it to the stack.
2. The switch type of the provi- The provisioned configura- sioned switch does not match the tion is changed to reflect switch type in the provisioned the new information. configuration on the stack. The stack member num- The switch stack applies
ber is not found in the pro- the default configuration to visioned configuration. the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack. The provisioned configuration is changed to reflect the new information. The stack member num- The stack master assigns a new The switch stack applies ber of the provisioned stack member number to the pro- the provisioned configura- switch is in conflict with an visioned switch. tion to the provisioned existing stack member. switch and adds it to the
The stack member numbers and stack.
1. If the new stack member tion is changed to reflect number of the provisioned switch the new information. matches the stack member num ber in the provisioned configuration on the stack, and
2. If the switch type of the provisioned switch matches the switch type in the provisioned configuration on the stack. The stack member numbers The switch stack applies match, but the switch types do the default configuration to not match: the provisioned switch and adds it to the stack.
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
E. 100 300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable. Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
channel-group 1 mode active
channel-group 1 mode auto
channel-group 1 mode desirable
channel-group 1 mode passive
channel-group 1 mode on
channel-group 1 mode auto
channel-group 1 mode desirable
channel-group 1 mode auto
Correct Answer: D
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets. auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets. on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode.
passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets. Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers. Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.
Refer to the exhibit.
How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: C
To start a new flow-based SPAN (FSPAN) session or flow-based RSPAN (FRSPAN) source or destination session, or to limit (filter) SPAN source traffic to specific VLANs, use the monitor session filter global configuration command.
You can set a combined maximum of two local SPAN sessions and RSPAN source sessions. You can have a total of 66 SPAN and RSPAN sessions on a switch or switch stack. You can monitor traffic on a single VLAN or on a series or range of ports or VLANs. You select a series or range of VLANs by using the [ , | -] options. If you specify a series of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the comma. If you specify a range of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the hyphen ( -). VLAN filtering refers to analyzing network traffic on a selected set of VLANs on trunk source ports. By default, all VLANs are monitored on trunk source ports. You can use the monitor session session_number filter vlan vlan-id command to limit SPAN traffic on trunk source ports to only the specified VLANs. VLAN monitoring and VLAN filtering are mutually exclusive. If a VLAN is a source, VLAN filtering cannot be enabled. If VLAN filtering is configured, a VLAN cannot become a source.
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1.You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules are not loaded?
A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfig
B. insmod, ifconfig, route
C. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfig
D. ifconfig, route
300-550 exam Answer: B
2.Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)
A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.
B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.
C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.
D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.
3.Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.
B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.
C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.
D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address. 300-550 dumps Answer: B
4.Which of the following can tunneling be used for?
A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.
B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.
C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.
D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.
E. All of the above.
5.Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)
A. arp -v
300-550 pdf Answer: C
6.Which of the following can you do with the “ping” command? (Choose two.)
A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.
B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.
C. View the MAC address of a given host.
D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.
7.A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system’s ipchains. Which of the following options will change the default input policy to DENY?
A. ipchains -a input DENY
B.ipchains -a output DENY
C.ipchains -P input DENY
D.ipchains -all input DENY
E.ipchains -input DENY
300-550 vce Answer: C
8.inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the contents of the “inetd.conf” file.
9.Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)
F. None of the above
300-550 exam Answer: D
10.Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)
A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to Y
B. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to Y
C. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to Y
D. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to Y
E. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to Y
11.Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)
A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.
C. TCP supports multicasting.
D. UDP supports multicasting.
E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting. 300-550 dumps Answer: C
12.Typical implementations of ping use the to send echo requests to other hosts.
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
13.Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent congestion.
300-550 pdf Answer: A
14.Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?
A. 64; 192.168.1.255
B. 254; 192.168.1.0
C. 255; 192.168.1.0
D. 256; 192.168.1.255
E. 128; 192.168.1.1
15.If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet address?
300-550 vce Answer: C
16.Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?
17.Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose three.)
300-550 exam Answer: ACD
18.For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0 network?
19.Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?
A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.
B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.
C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.
D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers. 300-550 dumps Answer: B
20.Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct accounts exist?
21.A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and have the rate vary by personnel area. What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
300-550 pdf Answer: C
22.A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated. These employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs. What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
23.Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of posting run, and printing checks. Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
300-550 vce Answer: C
24.A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule should determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included. What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A, B, D
25.A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments. What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They are
used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s address changes during a pay period. They are used to
allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s bank information changes during a pay period. They are
used to allocate payments to the correct account.
300-550 exam Answer: A, B
26.Which of the following modules integrates with SAP Learning Solution?(Choose three.)
A. Financial Accounting
B. Sales and Distribution
D. Business Warehouse
E. Travel Management
Answer: A, B, D
27.Which of the following components are included in SAP ERP Talent Management? (Choose three.)
A. Learning Solution
B. Pension Management
C. SAP E-Recruiting
D. Time Management
E. Performance Management 300-550 dumps Answer: A, C, E
28.The SAP ERP Human Capital Management system stores all employee master data in infotype records. What can you use to process infotype records? (Choose three.)
A. Initial entry maintenance
B. Fast entry
C. Overview entry
D. Personnel actions
E. Single screen maintenance
Answer: B, D, E
29.A customer asks you about the different Human Capital Management (HCM) solutions available in SAP. Which solutions belong to SAP HCM? (Choose three.)
A. Capacity Planning
B. Workforce Process Management
C. Talent Management
D. End User Service Delivery (MSS/ESS)
E. Task and Resource Management
300-550 pdf Answer: B, C, D
30.What is the principal purpose of employee subgroup groupings in SAP Human Capital Management?
A. They are the most important control indicators in the personnel structure.
B. They control default values for infotype fields.
C. They control the security of the enterprise structure.
D. They define the selection criteria for absences and attendances.
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