[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] Latest and Up to date Cisco SENSS 300-206 Dumps PDF Questions Answers Video Covers All Key Points 254Q Offer(1-35)

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300-206 dumps

Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-206 Dumps(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which two configurations are necessary to enable password-less SSH login to an IOS router? (Choose two.)
A. Enter a copy of the administrator\’s public key within the SSH key-chain
B. Enter a copy of the administrator\’s private key within the SSH key-chain
C. Generate a 512-bit RSA key to enable SSH on the router
D. Generate an RSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
E. Generate a 512-bit ECDSA key to enable SSH on the router
F. Generate a ECDSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
300-206 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
How many bridge groups are supported on a firewall that operate in transparent mode?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 10
D. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from gaining network topology information from CDP?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two features does Cisco Security Manager provide? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration and policy deployment before device discovery
B. Health and performance monitoring
C. Event management and alerting
D. Command line menu for troubleshooting
E. Ticketing management and tracking
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your company is replacing a high-availability pair of Cisco ASA 5550 firewalls with the newer Cisco ASA 5555X models. Due to budget constraints, one Cisco ASA 5550 will be replaced at a time. Which statement about the minimum requirements to set up stateful failover between these two firewalls is true?
A. You must install the USB failover cable between the two Cisco ASAs and provide a 1 Gigabit Ethernetinterface for state exchange.
B. It is not possible to use failover between different Cisco ASA models.
C. You must have at least 1 Gigabit Ethernet interface between the two Cisco ASAs for state exchange.
D. You must use two dedicated interfaces. One link is dedicated to state exchange and the other link is forheartbeats.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x
B. Netscape Navigator version 9
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes
E. Google Chrome (all versions)
300-206 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
A switch is being configured at a new location that uses statically assigned IP addresses. Which will ensure that ARP inspection works as expected?
A. Configure the \’no-dhcp\’ keyword at the end of the ip arp inspection command
B. Enable static arp inspection using the command \’ip arp inspection static vlan vlan- number
C. Configure an arp access-list and apply it to the ip arp inspection command
D. Enable port security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two high-level task areas in a Cisco Prime Infrastructure life-cycle workflow? (Choose two.)
A. Design
B. Operate

C. Maintain
D. Log
E. Evaluate
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-206 dumps

Which two statements about this firewall output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The output is from a packet tracer debug.
B. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0.
C. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0.
D. All packets are denied.
E. The output is from a debug all command.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
If the Cisco ASA 1000V has too few licenses, what is its behavior?
A. It drops all traffic.
B. It drops all outside-to-inside packets.

C. It drops all inside-to-outside packets.
D. It passes the first outside-to-inside packet and drops all remaining packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
At which layer does Dynamic ARP Inspection validate packets?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices?
A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard
B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional
C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle
D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
CORRECT TEXT
What are three ways to add devices in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? (Choose three.) A. Use an automated process.
A. Import devices from a CSV file.

B. Add devices manually.
C. Use RADIUS.
D. Use the Access Control Server.
E. Use Cisco Security Manager.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
Which command is used to disable Cisco Discovery Protocol globally on a router?
A. Cdp disable
B. No cdp enable
C. No cdp
D. No cdp run
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
300-206 dumps

Which option describes the expected result of the capture ACL?
A. The capture is applied, but we cannot see any packets in the capture
B. The capture does not get applied and we get an error about mixed policy.
C. The capture is applied and we can see the packets in the capture
D. The capture is not applied because we must have a host IP as the source
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with similar configuration requirements?
A. Lightweight access point configuration template
B. Composite template
C. Controller configuration group
D. Shared policy object

300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which two options are private-VLAN secondary VLAN types? (Choose two)
A. Isolated
B. Secured
C. Community
D. Common
E. Segregated
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
When a Cisco ASA is configured in transparent mode, how can ARP traffic be controlled?
A. By enabling ARP inspection; however, it cannot be controlled by an ACL
B. By enabling ARP inspection or by configuring ACLs
C. By configuring ACLs; however, ARP inspection is not supported
D. By configuring NAT and ARP inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which URL downloads a copy of packet-capture named andquot;securityandquot; residing on a Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance with IP 10.10.100.11?
A. https://10.10.10.11/security .pcap/download
B. https://10.10.10.11/asa/security/pcap
C. https://10.10.10.11/capture/security.pcap

D. https://10.10.10.11/capture/security/pcap
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 27
Cisco Security Manager can manage which three products? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco IPS
D. Cisco WLC
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco ASA CX
H. Cisco CRS
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-206 dumps

Which two statements about the SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The router\’s IP address is 192.168.1.1.
B. The SNMP server\’s IP address is 192.168.1.1.
C. Only the local SNMP engine is configured.
D. Both the local and remote SNMP engines are configured.
E. The router is connected to the SNMP server via port 162.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which URL matches the regex statement andquot;httpandquot;*/andquot;www.cisco.com/andquot;*[^E]andquot;xeandquot;?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which two TCP ports must be open on the Cisco Security Manager server to allow the server to communicate with the Cisco Security Manager client? (Choose two.)
A. 1741
B. 443
C. 80
D. 1740
E. 8080
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
An auditor analyzed a payroll system’s data files for unusual activity, such as excessive overtime hours, unusual fluctuations in pay rates, and excessive vacation time. The application controls being verified by this analysis are:
A. Edit and validation controls.
B. Rejected and suspense item controls.
C. Controls over update access to the database.
D. Programmed balancing controls.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
During the development of a purchasing system, an auditor reviewed the payment authorization program. Which of the following actions should the auditor recommend for a situation in which the quantity invoiced is greater than the quantity received?
A. Issue an exception report.
B. Pay the amount billed and adjust the inventory account for the difference.
C. Return the invoice to the vendor for correction.
D. Authorize payment of the full invoice, but maintain an open purchase order record for the missing goods.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is used to identify and prioritize critical business applications to determine those that must be restored and the order of restoration in the event that a disaster impairs information systems processing?
A. Contingent facility contract analysis.
B. System backup analysis.
C. Vendor supply agreement analysis.
D. Risk analysis.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
In forming a team to investigate an organization’s potential adoption of an activity-based costing system, the best reason to include an internal auditor on the team would be the auditor’s knowledge of:
A. Activities and cost drivers.
B. Information processing procedures.
C. Current product cost structures.
D. Internal control alternatives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Given the scarcity of internal audit resources, a chief audit executive (CAE) decided not to schedule a follow-up of audit recommendations when developing engagement work schedules.
Does the CAE’s decision violate the Standards?
A. No, because the Standards do not specify whether follow-up is needed.
B. No, because when there is evidence of sufficient motivation by the client, there is no need for follow-up action.
C. Yes, because scarcity of resources is not a sufficient reason to omit follow-up action.
D. Yes, because the Standards require the auditors to determine whether the client has appropriately implemented all of the auditor’s recommendations.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C
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[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] Most Popular Cisco CIPTV1 300-070 Dumps PDF Answers Question Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 Video Is What You Need To Take 211Q Offer(1-30)

Are you want to pass 300-070 dumps exam in the first attempt? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 (300-070 CIPTV1) exam is a 75 Minutes (65 – 75 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Collaboration certification. Most popular Cisco CIPTV1 300-070 dumps pdf answers question Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 video is what you need to take. “Implementing Microsoft IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-070 exam. One time purchase you can get the 300-070 practice tests and PDF. Pass4itsure provides a totally secure platform for Cisco 300-070 exam. With the help of the practice test software, the candidate can check their https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html exam preparation progress and can improve their Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration Certification Exam.

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300-070 dumps

Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-070 Dumps(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
A voice engineer is troubleshooting an issue that involves incoming calls to POTS lines. Which command verifies the digits that are received by voice-port?
A. debug voip dial-per
B. debug vtsp session
C. debug vtsp dsp
D. debug call treatment
E. debug voice protocol
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps

A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey\’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey\’s Gateway.
C. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
D. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager software- based Media Termination Point? (Choose three.)
A. The codec and packetization of both call legs must be identical.
B. This Media Termination Point type does not require any DSP resources on the Cisco router.
C. DSP resources are required.
D. It can provide G.711 mu-law to G.711 a-law conversion and vice versa.
E. It can provide packetization conversion for a given codec (for example, if one call leg is using a 20-mssampe size, but the other call legis using a 30-ms sample size).
F. This Media Termination Point type is typically used for RSVP agent configurations or Cisco Unified borderelementmedia flow-through configuration.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 8
What is a route list?
A. a list of locations

B. an ordered list of regions
C. a list of route patterns
D. an ordered list of gateways and trunks
E. an ordered list of route groups
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the recommended default value that is used between regions for video calls?
A. 384 Kbps.
B. G.722.
C. G.711.
D. G.728.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold
B. H.323 trunk
C. Media Termination Point
D. Meet-Me Conference
E. SIP trunk
F. Transcoder
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 13
Refer to Exhibit: An engineer is working on a ticket that reports TEL1 cannot call TEL2. These dial peers are configured to route the call between the endpoints.
300-070 dumps

dial-peer voice 2001voip
destination-pattern 2001
session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.1.1.2
incoming called-number .
codec g722-64
video codec h264
dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify sip-kpml
no vad
dial-peer voice 3001 voip
destination-pattern 3001
session protocol sipv2
session target ipv4:10.3.1.2
incoming called-number .

codec g722-64
video codec h264
dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify sip-kpml
no vad
While troubleshooting, the engineer discovers that the Cisco Unified Border Element is giving the error andquot;SIP/2.0
403 Forbiddenandquot;. Which two Cisco Unified Border Element configurations resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list ipv4 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 ipv4 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
B. voice service voip no ip address trusted authenticate mode border-element allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
C. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
D. voice service voip mode border-element allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
E. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list ipv4 10.1.1.0 255.255 255.0 ipv4 10.3.1.0 255.255.255.0 allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5.
B. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7.
C. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3.
D. DSCP AF21, Cos 5.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two codecs are the best codecs to use in WAN and LAN? (Choose two.)
A. WAN codec G.711
B. LAN codec G.729
C. WAN codec G.729
D. LAN codec G.711
300-070 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
Which route pattern is the best match for the range of 6000 to 6599?
A. 65XX
B. 60XX
C. 6[05]XX
D. 6XXX
E. 6[0-5]
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two describe how media resources and audio streams operate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Audio streams are terminated differently depending on the signaling protocol, such as SCCP or SIP.
B. Audio streams are always terminated by media resources.
C. All media resources register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. There are no situations in which IP phone-to-IP phone audio streams will go directly between endpoints.
E. Signaling between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and hardware media resources uses the same protocol as the call-signaling type.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent
system?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. NoDigits
D. Trailing-#
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to Exhibit: If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
300-070 dumps

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
300-070 dumps

To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9. Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials the toll-free number 18005550123?
A. 911
B. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
C. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
D. 9.18[0,6-8][0,6-8]XXXXXXX
E. 9.1900XXXXXXX
F. 9011!
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
What is a VoIP dial peer?
A. A nonaddressable call endpoint.

B. A call routing mechanism to send and receive calls based on called or calling digits.
C. A physical connection for call legs.
D. A logical connection for call legs.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps

What are the two main ways from New York to call Extension 6001 in England? (Choose two.) sh run | s Dial-peer dial peer voice 2 voip destination-pattern 6… preference 0 session-target ipv4: 200.10.10.5 dtmf-relay sip-notify dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 6… preference 1 port 0/0/0:23 prefix 757385 dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. The first way is WAN.
B. The first way is PSTN.
C. The second way is WAN.
D. The second way is PSTN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
Which four software based media resources require that the Cisco IP voice media stream Application be activated?
A. MOH.
B. SIP.
C. H.323 Gateways.
D. Annunciator.
E. Gatekeeper.

F. MTP.
G. Audio conferencing.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: ADFG

QUESTION 26
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 27
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 30
Which tool can you use to evaluate dial plans for errors and to examine internal-to-internal and internal-to-external calls?
A. RTMT
B. DNA
C. QRT Viewer
D. CAR tool
Correct Answer: B
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

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Interactive practice test operates as a realistic simulation of the real Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration 300-070 dumps certification exam. “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0”, also known as 300-070 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 dumps exam questions answers are updated (211 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-070 dumps is CCNP Collaboration. Pass4itsure allows the candidate to determine their https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps strength and area of practice.

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[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] Are You Looking for Most Relevant and Latest Questions for Discount Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Question Description with Youtube Study? 60Q Offer(1-30)

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 210-451 Dumps(1-30)

QUESTION 1
VMware\’s ESXi Hypervisor is a Type-1 hypervisor. What does this mean?
A. It should be placed first in your data center.
B. It runs a conventional operating system and abstracts the guest operating system from its host system.
C. It should only be run in class 1 data centers with high availability.
D. It runs directly on the host hardware to control and manage the guest operating systems.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager

D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What two protocols does a physical switch and Nexus 1000V support? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS
B. STP
C. ARP
D. CDP
210-451 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer

C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
210-451 exam Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710

B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.

C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
210-451 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 18
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Central
C. Cisco UCS B-Series
D. Cisco UCS C-Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY

D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks

D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 25
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
What best describes server virtualization?
A. Server virtualization is the masking of server resources (including the number and identity of individual physical servers, processors, and operating systems) from server users.
B. System virtualization is the use of software to allow a piece of hardware to run multiple operating system images at the same time.

C. A method of combining the available resources in a network by splitting up the available bandwidth into channels, each of which is independent from the others, and each of which can be assigned (or reassigned) to a particular server or device in real time.
D. Pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. FlexPath
D. VLAN bridging
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository,
the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A

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We are offering learning material for 210-451 dumps Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals exam by considering the real Cisco 210-451 exam criteria. Our highly educated experts are devoting their duties to prepare most relevant 210-451 exam questions for you. “Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals”, also known as 210-451 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-451 dumps exam questions answers are updated (60 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-451 dumps is CCNA Cloud. We are providing PDF format solved questions and answers and Practice test software https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html dumps Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals exam.

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[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] How Can You Get 2018 Latest Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Implementing Cisco Network Security 310Q Offer(1-30)

For those that passed the Cisco 210-260 dumps exam what was the format? The Implementing Cisco Network Security (210-260 IINS) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Security certification. Get 2018 latest Cisco 210-260 dumps IINS exam Implementing Cisco Network Security. “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-260 exam. But the effective implementation of Cisco Network Security exam preparation and understanding of all the basics of Cisco 210–260 are definitely required to pass this critical review of Cisco Deployment of Cisco Network Security.Pass4itsure is a global https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps Cisco Certified Network Associate Security practice exam supplier.

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 210-260 Dumps(1-30)

QUESTION 1
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the actual IOS privilege level of User Exec mode?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 5
D. 15
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
How does PEAP protect the EAP exchange?
A. It encrypts the exchange using the server certificate.
B. It encrypts the exchange using the client certificate.
C. It validates the server-supplied certificate, and then encrypts the exchange using the client certificate.
D. It validates the client-supplied certificate, and then encrypts the exchange using the server certificate.
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1.
C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statements about reflexive access lists are true? (Choose three.)
A. Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE
B. Reflexive access lists approximate session filtering using the established keyword
C. Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs
D. Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions
E. Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs F. Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 6
Which of the following pairs of statements is true in terms of configuring MD authentication?
A. Interface statements (OSPF, EIGRP) must be configured; use of key chain in OSPF
B. Router process (OSPF, EIGRP) must be configured; key chain in EIGRP
C. Router process (only for OSPF) must be configured; key chain in EIGRP
D. Router process (only for OSPF) must be configured; key chain in OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What do you use when you have a network object or group and want to use an IP address?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. identity NAT
D. Static PAT
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
When a switch has multiple links connected to a downstream switch, what is the first step that STP takes to prevent loops?
A. STP elects the root bridge
B. STP selects the root port
C. STP selects the designated port
D. STP blocks one of the ports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.

C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
B. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
C. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
D. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How to verify that TACACS+ connectivity to a device?
A. You successfully log in to the device by using the local credentials.
B. You connect to the device using SSH and receive the login prompt.
C. You successfully log in to the device by using ACS credentials.
D. You connect via console port and receive the login prompt.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the effect of the ASA command crypto isakmp nat-traversal?
A. It opens port 4500 only on the outside interface.
B. It opens port 500 only on the inside interface.
C. It opens port 500 only on the outside interface.
D. It opens port 4500 on all interfaces that are IPSec enabled.

210-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What port option in a PVLAN that can communicate with every other ports
Correct Answer: promiscous

QUESTION 19
What port option in a PVLAN that can communicate with every other ports…
A. promiscous
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You want to allow all of your company\’s users to access the Internet without allowing other Web servers to collect the IP addresses of individual users. What two solutions can you use? (Choose two).
A. Configure a proxy server to hide users\’ local IP addresses.
B. Assign unique IP addresses to all users.
C. Assign the same IP address to all users.
D. Install a Web content filter to hide users\’ local IP addresses.
E. Configure a firewall to use Port Address Translation.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
Which statement about application blocking is true?
A. It blocks access to specific programs.
B. It blocks access to files with specific extensions.
C. It blocks access to specific network addresses.
D. It blocks access to specific network services.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which filter uses in Web reputation to prevent from Web Based Attacks? (Choose two)
A. outbreak filter
B. buffer overflow filter
C. bayesian overflow filter

D. web reputation
E. exploit filtering
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
Which firewall configuration must you perform to allow traffic to flow in both directions between two zones?
A. You must configure two zone pairs, one for each direction.
B. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone.
C. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows for any zone except the self zone.
D. You can configure a single zone pair that allows bidirectional traffic flows only if the source zone is the less secure zone.
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
which port should (or would) be open if VPN NAT-T was enabled
A. port 500
B. port 500 outside interface
C. port 4500 outside interface
D. port 4500 ipsec
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 switch interface?
A. listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled
B. listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled

C. blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled
D. forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 28
What feature defines a campus area network?
A. It has a single geographic location.
B. It has limited or restricted Internet access.
C. It has a limited number of segments.
D. it lacks external connectivity.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native VLAN?
A. It may be susceptible to a VLAN hoping attack.
B. Gratuitous ARPs might be able to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.
C. The CAM might be overloaded, effectively turning the switch into a hub.
D. VLAN 1 might be vulnerable to IP address spoofing.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

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[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] Most Important Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Youtube Guide Free Download With Accurate Answers 755Q Offer(1-30)

Is CCNA Routing and Switching certification Cisco 200-125 dumps right for you? The CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0) (200-125 CCNA) exam is a 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Most important Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam Youtube guide free download with accurate answers. “CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-125 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-125 exam.  You get to download both books, and keep them for as long as you want. These books are very helpful and are specific towards the Cisco exams. They have a comprehensive Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-125.html dumps video course to help tech the material along side the book. In my opinion, I think that as far as training videos go, the pass4itsure videos are by far the best.

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 200-125 Dumps(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)
A. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.
B. They use the prefix FC00::/7
C. They are defined by RFC 1884 D. They use the prefix FEC0::/10
E. They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.
200-125 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
What is a global command?
A. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
C. show ip dhcp conflict
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links?(choose three)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. increased security
D. scalability
E. reduced latency
F. broadband incompatibility
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?
A. successors
B. advertised changes
C. goodbye messages
D. expiration of the hold timer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about SNMPv2 is true ?
A. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.
B. it requires passwords to be encrypyed
C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.
D. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.
200-125 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?
A. removing an entry
B. opening the access-list in notepad
C. adding an entry

D. resequencing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be repeated automatically at a specified interval.
B. It can validate the reply data.
C. It can use a specified TTL value.
D. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address.
E. It can use a specified ToS.
200-125 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
200-125 dumps

What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose Three.)
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.4.3.0
C. 172.15.4.0
D. 172.15.0.0
E. 192.168.4.0
F. 192.168.0.0
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between two devices in a network?
A. ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM.
B. The ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM

C. APIC-EM automation scheduler.
D. iWAN application.
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about syslog loging are true?(Choose two.)
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. The size of the log file is dependenet on the resources of the device
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a switch?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unkown tagged traffic
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtimeandlt;input type
B. service timestamps debug datetime msecandlt;input type
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtimeandlt;input type
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute

C. ssh
D. telnet
200-125 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 17
Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
A. There is a duplex mismatch.

B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
C. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 7)
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed. The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.

200-125 dumps

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords have been temporarily set to andquot;ciscoandquot;. The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.247.65 The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.240.1 – 192.168.240.254 host A 192.168.240.1 host B 192.168.240.2 host C 192.168.240.3
A. Explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learn about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
A. It sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router.
B. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors.
C. It disables the routing protocol.
D. It prefers the static route.
200-125 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
200-125 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 27
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto

C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

200-125 dumps

200-125 dumps

200-125 dumps

200-125 dumps

200-125 dumps

200-125 dumps

Study the following output taken on R1:
R1# Ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
…….
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Why are the pings failing?
A. The network statement is missing on R5.
B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.
C. The network statement is missing on R1.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to exhibit.
200-125 dumps

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. bootstrap
B. POST
C. mini-IOS
D. ROMMON mode

Correct Answer: A

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[Jan-2018-Cisco Updated] Most Important Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 v3.0 Exam Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 With High Quality Youtube Training 332Q Offer(1-20)

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100-105 dumps

Welcome to Pass4itsure’s Blog: Free Cisco 100-105 Dumps(1-20)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct. AREA 2 o

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?
A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.
B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.
C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election
D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
OSPF elects one DR per multi-access network. In the exhibit there are two DR so there must have more than one multi access network.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?
A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.

C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Each time you power up the switch, eight Power-On Self Tests (POSTs) run automatically. POSTs c

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?
A. R2 and R3
B. R1 and R3
C. R3 and S2
D. R1, S1, S2, and R3
E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
A Cisco device enabled with CDP sends out periodic interface updates to a multicast address in order to make itself known to neighbors. Since it is a layer two protocol, these packets are not routed

QUESTION 6
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. Drops the frame
B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:

In this case, it will send out an ARP request for MAC address of the destination IP (assuming it doesn\’t already have it in its table) and then address it to the destination\’s MAC address.

QUESTION 7
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision,
broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain.

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation/Reference:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD prot

QUESTION 9
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

100-105 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than using a dynamic method such as DHCP as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
When frame receives the frame, it checks the source address on MAC table if MAC address found in MAC table it tries to forward if not in MAC table adds the Address on MAC table.

QUESTION 11
100-105 dumps

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity

E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:

100-105 dumps

Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps

QUESTION 13
Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?
A. One tunnel endpoint must be configured with IPv4 only
B. It establishes a point-to-point tunnel
C. Both tunnel endpoints must be configured with IPv4 only
D. Both tunnel endpoints must support IPv4 and IPv6
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ipdhcp conflict
B. ipdhcp-server pool DHCP
C. ipdhcp pool DHCP
D. ipdhcp-client pool DHCP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three)
A. 10.0.0.0

B. 172.15.0.0
C. 172.31.0.0
D. 192.162.24.0
E. 192.168.255.0
F. 224.192.0.0
100-105 vce Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
The proposed addressing scheme is on the same network. Cisco routers will not allow you to assign two different interfaces to be on the same IP subnet.

QUESTION 17
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
100-105 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108/ Bandwidth

QUESTION 18
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.4.61
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.67
D. 192.168.4.125
E. 192.168.4.128
F. 192.168.4.132
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
Increment: 64 (/26 = 11111111.11111111.11111111.11000000) The IP 192.168.4.0 belongs to class C. The default subnet mask of class C is /24 and it has been subnetted with a /26 mask so we have 2(26-

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
The default gateway will be the IP address of the router that it connects to, not the switch.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Initially the MAC address had to be resolved, but once it is resolved and is in the ARP table of the router, pings go through immediately.

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