Pass4itsure EMC Exam Question Answers Dumps Using Guaranteed Training Questions

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps(1-33)

QUESTION 1

When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network is configured to allow clientless access to resources inside the network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to allow SSH applications to respond on the specified port 8889?
A. auto applet download
B. port forwarding
C. web-type ACL
D. HTTP proxy
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting a DMVPN NHRP registration failure. Which command can you use to view request counters?
A. show ip nhrp nhs detail
B. show ip nhrp tunnel
C. show ip nhrp incomplete
D. show ip nhrp incomplete tunnel tunnel_interface_number
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which option is a required element of Secure Device Provisioning communications?
A. the introducer
B. the certificate authority
C. the requestor
D. the registration authority
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are two benefits of DMVPN Phase 3? (Choose two.)
A. Administrators can use summarization of routing protocol updates from hub to spokes.
B. It introduces hierarchical DMVPN deployments.
C. It introduces non-hierarchical DMVPN deployments.
D. It supports L2TP over IPSec as one of the VPN protocols.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
What action does the hub take when it receives a NHRP resolution request from a spoke for a network that exists behind another spoke?
A. The hub sends back a resolution reply to the requesting spoke.
B. The hub updates its own NHRP mapping.
C. The hub forwards the request to the destination spoke.
D. The hub waits for the second spoke to send a request so that it can respond to both spokes.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two are features of GETVPN but not DMVPN and FlexVPN? (Choose two.)
A. one IPsec SA for all encrypted traffic
B. no requirement for an overlay routing protocol
C. design for use over public or private WAN
D. sequence numbers that enable scalable replay checking
E. enabled use of ESP or AH
F. preservation of IP protocol in outer header
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers?
A. Reverse Route Injection
B. split tunneling
C. loopback addressing
D. dynamic virtual tunnels
300-209 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer cannot establish an IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco ASA devices. Based on the syslog message, which action can bring up the VPN tunnel?
A. Increase the maximum SA limit on the local Cisco ASA.
B. Correct the crypto access list on both Cisco ASA devices.
C. Remove the maximum SA limit on the remote Cisco ASA.
D. Reduce the maximum SA limit on the local Cisco ASA.
E. Correct the IP address in the local and remote crypto maps.
F. Increase the maximum SA limit on the remote Cisco ASA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?
A. AES-GCM and SHA-2
B. 3DES and DH
C. AES-CBC and SHA-1
D. 3DES and SHA-1
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A rogue static route is installed in the routing table of a Cisco FlexVPN and is causing traffic to be blackholed. Which command should be used to identify the peer from which that route originated?
A. show crypto ikev2 sa detail
B. show crypto route
C. show crypto ikev2 client flexvpn
D. show ip route eigrp
E. show crypto isakmp sa detail
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology does this configuration demonstrate?
A. AnyConnect SSL over IPv4+IPv6
B. AnyConnect FlexVPN over IPv4+IPv6
C. AnyConnect FlexVPN IPv6 over IPv4
D. AnyConnect SSL IPv6 over IPv4
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

You have implemented an SSL VPN as shown. Which type of communication takes place between the secure gateway R1 and the Cisco Secure ACS?
A. HTTP proxy
B. AAA
C. policy
D. port forwarding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
After adding a remote-access IPsec tunnel via the VPN wizard, an administrator needs to tune the IPsec policy parameters. Where is the correct place to tune the IPsec policy parameters in Cisco ASDM?
A. IPsec user profile
B. Crypto Map
C. Group Policy
D. IPsec Policy
E. IKE Policy
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

A NOC engineer is in the process of entering information into the Create New VPN Connection Entry fields. Which statement correctly describes how to do this?
A. In the Connection Entry field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. In the Host field, enter the IP address of the remote client device.
C. In the Authentication tab, click the Group Authentication or Mutual Group Authentication radio button to enable symmetrical pre-shared key authentication.
D. In the Name field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; Logging andgt; E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration andgt; Device Management andgt; E-Mail Setup andgt; Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
300-209 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which three changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose three.)
A. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Enable EIGRP split-horizon on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP shortcuts on the spoke.
F. Add NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring a laptop with the Cisco VPN Client, which uses digital certificates for authentication. Which protocol does the Cisco VPN Client use to retrieve the digital certificate from the CA server?
A. FTP
B. LDAP
C. HTTPS
D. SCEP
E. OCSP
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
In DMVPN phase 2, which two EIGRP features need to be disabled on the hub to allow spoke-to-spoke communication? (Choose two.)
A. autosummary
B. split horizon
C. metric calculation using bandwidth
D. EIGRP address family
E. next-hop-self
F. default administrative distance
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which two operational advantages does GetVPN offer over site-to-site IPsec tunnel in a private MPLS-based core network? (Choose two.)
A. Key servers perform encryption and decryption of all the data in the network, which allows for tight security policies.
B. Traffic uses one VRF to encrypt data and a different on to decrypt data, which allows for multicast traffic isolation.
C. GETVPN is tunnel-less, which allows any group member to perform decryption and routing around network failures.
D. Packets carry original source and destination IP addresses, which allows for optimal routing of encrypted traffic.
E. Group Domain of Interpretation protocol allows for homomorphic encryption, which allows group members to operate on messages without decrypting them
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?
A. The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
B. Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
C. The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
D. The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Using the Next Generation Encryption technologies, which is the minimum acceptable encryption level to protect sensitive information?
A. AES 92 bits
B. AES 128 bits
C. AES 256 bits
D. AES 512 bits
300-209 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the purpose of the given configuration?
A. Establishing a GRE tunnel.
B. Enabling IPSec to decrypt fragmented packets.
C. Resolving access issues caused by large packet sizes.
D. Adding the spoke to the routing table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?
A. enrollment profile
B. enrollment terminal
C. enrollment url
D. enrollment selfsigned
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocols does the Cisco AnyConnect client use to build multiple connections to the security appliance?
A. TLS and DTLS
B. IKEv1
C. L2TP over IPsec
D. SSH over TCP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which two are characteristics of GETVPN? (Choose two.)
A. The IP header of the encrypted packet is preserved
B. A key server is elected among all configured Group Members
C. Unique encryption keys are computed for each Group Member
D. The same key encryption and traffic encryption keys are distributed to all Group Members
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
An engineer is configuring an IPsec VPN with IKEv2. Which three components are part of the IKEv2 proposal for this implementation? (Choos three.)
A. key ring
B. DH group
C. integrity
D. tunnel name
E. encryption
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 31
During an audit of executive travel, an auditor noted that the president’s travel expense reimbursements were approved by an executive secretary who reported to the president. The organization’s reimbursement policy requires all travel expense reimbursements to be approved by the traveler’s supervisor, but it does not address the president’s reimbursements. Which of the following represents the auditor’s best recommendation in this situation?
A. The organization’s reimbursement policy should be amended to grant the president’s executive secretary the authority to approve the president’s travel expense reimbursements.
B. The approval policy for executive travel should be considered at the next meeting of the audit committee of the board of directors.
C. The president’s travel expense reimbursements should be reviewed and approved by the chief financial officer.
D. The president’s noncompliance should be considered immaterial.
300-209 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which of the following, if observed, would not indicate the need to extend the search for other indicators of fraud in a purchasing department?
A. The standard of living of one of the purchasing agents has increased.
B. The internal control structure has significant weaknesses.
C. The purchasing agents have convinced management to adopt a policy of paying vendors on a more timely basis in order to avoid incurring penalty charges.
D. The cost of goods procured seems to be excessive in comparison with previous years.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following does not represent a difficulty in using red flags as fraud indicators?
A. Many common red flags are also associated with situations where no fraud exists.
B. Some red flags are difficult to quantify or to evaluate.
C. Red flag information is only gathered in extraordinary circumstances.
D. The red flags literature is not well enough established to have a positive impact on auditing.
300-209 exam Correct Answer: D

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-208 Dumps(1-33)

QUESTION 1
You have configured a Cisco ISE 1.2 deployment for self-registration of guest users. What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins? (Choose two.)
A. CreateTime
B. FirstLogin
C. BeginLogin
D. StartTime
300-208 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. The IPS automatically send shuns to Cisco WLC for an active host block.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three network access devices allow for static security group tag assignment? (Choose three.)
A. intrusion prevention system
B. access layer switch
C. data center access switch
D. load balancer
E. VPN concentrator
F. wireless LAN controller
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
Which command in the My Devices Portal can restore a previously lost device to the network?
A. Reset
B. Found
C. Reinstate
D. Request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which CoA type does a Cisco ISE PSN send to a network access device when a NAG agent reports the OS patch status of a noncompliant endpoint?
A. CoA-Terminate
B. CoA-PortBounce
C. CoA-Reauth
D. CoA-Remediate
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option is one method for transporting security group tags throughout the network?
A. by embedding the SGT in the IP header
B. via Security Group Exchange Protocol
C. by embedding the SGT in the 802.1Q header
D. by enabling 802.1AE on every network device
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
300-208 vce Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which mechanism does Cisco ISE use to force a device off the network if it is reported lost or stolen?
A. CoA
B. dynamic ACLs
C. SGACL
D. certificate revocation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three pieces of information can be found in an authentication detail report? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP vendor ID
B. user agent string
C. the authorization rule matched by the endpoint
D. the EAP method the endpoint is using
E. the RADIUS username being used
F. failed posture requirement
300-208 exam Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10
Your guest-access wireless network is experiencing degraded performance and excessive latency due to user saturation. Which type of rate limiting can you implement on your network to correct the problem?
A. per-device
B. per-policy
C. per-access point
D. per-controller
E. per-application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth host mode
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 12
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Within a BYOD environment, when employees add devices using the My Devices Portal, which Identity Group does Cisco ISE add the endpoints to?
A. Registered
B. Employee
C. Guest
D. Profiled
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three events immediately occur when a user clicks andquot;Registerandquot; on their device in a single-SSID BYOD onboarding registration process (Choose three).
A. CA certificate is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
B. An endpoint is added to a RegistereDevices identity group
C. RADIUS access request is sent to Cisco ISE
D. The profile service is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
E. dACL is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
F. BYOD registration flag is set by Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 15
How many bits are in a security group tag?
A. 64
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
300-208 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two Active Directory authentication methods are supported by Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. PEAP
C. PPTP
D. EAP-PEAP
E. PPP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which network component would issue the CoA?
A. switch
B. endpoint
C. Admin Node
D. Policy Service Node
300-208 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication portal?
A. the endpoints
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. ISE
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further violations? (Choose two)
A. DHCP Snooping
B. 802.1AE MacSec
C. Port security
D. IP Device tracking
E. Dynamic ARP inspection
F. Private VLANs
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is seeing a posture status andquot;unknownandquot; for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as andquot;compliantandquot;. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as andquot;unknownandquot;?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which option describes the purpose of configuring Native Supplicant Profile on the Cisco ISE?
A. It helps employees add and manage new devices by entering the MAC address for the device.
B. It is used to register personal devices on the network.
C. It enforces the use of MSCHAPv2 or EAP-TLS for 802.1X authentication.
D. It provides posture assessments and remediation for devices that are attempting to gain access to the corporate network.
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
During client provisioning on a Mac OS X system, the client system fails to renew its IP address. Which change can you make to the agent profile to correct the problem?
A. Enable the Agent IP Refresh feature.
B. Enable the Enable VLAN Detect Without UI feature.
C. Enable CRL checking.
D. Edit the Discovery Host parameter to use an IP address instead of an FQDN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
You are installing Cisco ISE on nodes that will be used in a distributed deployment. After the initial bootstrap process, what state will the Cisco ISE nodes be in?
A. Remote
B. Policy service
C. Administration
D. Standalone
300-208 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What implementation must be added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints?
A. the ISE
B. an ACL
C. a router
D. a policy server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You have configured a Cisco ISE1.2 deployment for self registration of guest users. What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins(Choose two)?
A. Createtime
B. Firstlogin
C. Approvaltime
D. Custom
E. Starttime
300-208 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 27
Which debug command on a Cisco WLC shows the reason that a client session was terminated?
A. debug dot11 state enable
B. debug dot1x packet enable
C. debug client mac addr
D. debug dtls event enable
E. debug ap enable cisco ap
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
How frequently does the Profiled Endpoints dashlet refresh data?
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 60 seconds
C. every 2 minutes
D. every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which two profile attributes can be collected by a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller that supports Device Sensor? (Choose two.)
A. LLDP agent information
B. user agent
C. DHCP options
D. open ports
E. CDP agent information
F. FQDN
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
Which five portals are provided by PSN? (Choose five.)
A. guest
B. sponsor
C. my devices
D. blacklist
E. client provisioning
F. admin
G. monitoring and troubleshooting
Correct Answer: ABCDE

QUESTION 31
An auditor for a major retail company suspects that inventory fraud is occurring at three stores which have high costs of goods sold. Which of the following audit activities would provide the most persuasive evidence that fraud is occurring?
A. Use an integrated test facility (ITF) to compare individual sales transactions with test transactions submitted through the ITF and investigate all differences.
B. Interview the three individual store managers to determine if their explanations about the observed differences are the same, and then compare their explanations to that of the section manager.
C. Schedule a surprise inventory audit to include a physical inventory and investigate areas of inventory shrinkage.
D. Select a sample of individual store prices and compare them with the sales entered on the cash register for the same items.
300-208 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following procedures would be most helpful in providing additional evidence when an auditor suspects that an unidentified employee is submitting and approving invoices for payment?
A. Use generalized audit software to identify invoices from vendors with post office box numbers or other unusual features. Select a sample of those invoices and trace to supporting documents such as receiving reports.
B. Select a sample of payments made during the year and investigate each one for approval.
C. Select a sample of receiving reports representative of the period under investigation and trace to approved payment. Note any items not properly processed.
D. Select a sample of invoices paid during the past month and trace them to appropriate vendor accounts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Insurance companies often receive electronic hospitalization claims directly from hospitals. Which of the following control procedures would be most effective in detecting fraud in such an environment?
A. Use integrated test facilities to test the accuracy of processing in a manner that is transparent to data processing.
B. Develop monitoring programs to identify unusual types of claims or an unusual number of claims by demographic class for investigation by the claims department.
C. Use generalized audit software to match the claimant identification number with a master list of valid policyholders.
D. Develop batch controls over all items received from a particular hospital and process those claims in batches.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: B

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This 90-minute 300-208 dumps exam consists of 65-75 questions and assesses knowledge of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) architecture, solution, and components as an overall network threat mitigation and endpoint control solutions. It also includes the fundamental concepts of bring your own device (BYOD) using posture and profiling services of ISE. “Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions”, also known as 300-208 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-208 dumps exam questions answers are updated (282 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-208.html dumps is CCNP Security.

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-206 Dumps(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which two configurations are necessary to enable password-less SSH login to an IOS router? (Choose two.)
A. Enter a copy of the administrator\’s public key within the SSH key-chain
B. Enter a copy of the administrator\’s private key within the SSH key-chain
C. Generate a 512-bit RSA key to enable SSH on the router
D. Generate an RSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
E. Generate a 512-bit ECDSA key to enable SSH on the router
F. Generate a ECDSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
300-206 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
How many bridge groups are supported on a firewall that operate in transparent mode?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 10
D. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from gaining network topology information from CDP?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two features does Cisco Security Manager provide? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration and policy deployment before device discovery
B. Health and performance monitoring
C. Event management and alerting
D. Command line menu for troubleshooting
E. Ticketing management and tracking
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your company is replacing a high-availability pair of Cisco ASA 5550 firewalls with the newer Cisco ASA 5555X models. Due to budget constraints, one Cisco ASA 5550 will be replaced at a time. Which statement about the minimum requirements to set up stateful failover between these two firewalls is true?
A. You must install the USB failover cable between the two Cisco ASAs and provide a 1 Gigabit Ethernetinterface for state exchange.
B. It is not possible to use failover between different Cisco ASA models.
C. You must have at least 1 Gigabit Ethernet interface between the two Cisco ASAs for state exchange.
D. You must use two dedicated interfaces. One link is dedicated to state exchange and the other link is forheartbeats.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x
B. Netscape Navigator version 9
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes
E. Google Chrome (all versions)
300-206 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
A switch is being configured at a new location that uses statically assigned IP addresses. Which will ensure that ARP inspection works as expected?
A. Configure the \’no-dhcp\’ keyword at the end of the ip arp inspection command
B. Enable static arp inspection using the command \’ip arp inspection static vlan vlan- number
C. Configure an arp access-list and apply it to the ip arp inspection command
D. Enable port security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two high-level task areas in a Cisco Prime Infrastructure life-cycle workflow? (Choose two.)
A. Design
B. Operate
C. Maintain
D. Log
E. Evaluate
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this firewall output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The output is from a packet tracer debug.
B. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0.
C. All packets are allowed to 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0.
D. All packets are denied.
E. The output is from a debug all command.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
If the Cisco ASA 1000V has too few licenses, what is its behavior?
A. It drops all traffic.
B. It drops all outside-to-inside packets.
C. It drops all inside-to-outside packets.
D. It passes the first outside-to-inside packet and drops all remaining packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
At which layer does Dynamic ARP Inspection validate packets?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Security Manager form factor is recommended for deployments with fewer than 25 devices?
A. only Cisco Security Manager Standard
B. only Cisco Security Manager Professional
C. only Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundle
D. both Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
CORRECT TEXT
What are three ways to add devices in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? (Choose three.) A. Use an automated process.
A. Import devices from a CSV file.
B. Add devices manually.
C. Use RADIUS.
D. Use the Access Control Server.
E. Use Cisco Security Manager.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
Which command is used to disable Cisco Discovery Protocol globally on a router?
A. Cdp disable
B. No cdp enable
C. No cdp
D. No cdp run
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the expected result of the capture ACL?
A. The capture is applied, but we cannot see any packets in the capture
B. The capture does not get applied and we get an error about mixed policy.
C. The capture is applied and we can see the packets in the capture
D. The capture is not applied because we must have a host IP as the source
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with similar configuration requirements?
A. Lightweight access point configuration template
B. Composite template
C. Controller configuration group
D. Shared policy object
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which two options are private-VLAN secondary VLAN types? (Choose two)
A. Isolated
B. Secured
C. Community
D. Common
E. Segregated
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
300-206 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
When a Cisco ASA is configured in transparent mode, how can ARP traffic be controlled?
A. By enabling ARP inspection; however, it cannot be controlled by an ACL
B. By enabling ARP inspection or by configuring ACLs
C. By configuring ACLs; however, ARP inspection is not supported
D. By configuring NAT and ARP inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which URL downloads a copy of packet-capture named andquot;securityandquot; residing on a Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance with IP 10.10.100.11?
A. https://10.10.10.11/security .pcap/download
B. https://10.10.10.11/asa/security/pcap
C. https://10.10.10.11/capture/security.pcap
D. https://10.10.10.11/capture/security/pcap
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 27
Cisco Security Manager can manage which three products? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco IPS
D. Cisco WLC
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco ASA CX
H. Cisco CRS
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The router\’s IP address is 192.168.1.1.
B. The SNMP server\’s IP address is 192.168.1.1.
C. Only the local SNMP engine is configured.
D. Both the local and remote SNMP engines are configured.
E. The router is connected to the SNMP server via port 162.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which URL matches the regex statement andquot;httpandquot;*/andquot;www.cisco.com/andquot;*[^E]andquot;xeandquot;?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which two TCP ports must be open on the Cisco Security Manager server to allow the server to communicate with the Cisco Security Manager client? (Choose two.)
A. 1741
B. 443
C. 80
D. 1740
E. 8080
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
An auditor analyzed a payroll system’s data files for unusual activity, such as excessive overtime hours, unusual fluctuations in pay rates, and excessive vacation time. The application controls being verified by this analysis are:
A. Edit and validation controls.
B. Rejected and suspense item controls.
C. Controls over update access to the database.
D. Programmed balancing controls.
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
During the development of a purchasing system, an auditor reviewed the payment authorization program. Which of the following actions should the auditor recommend for a situation in which the quantity invoiced is greater than the quantity received?
A. Issue an exception report.
B. Pay the amount billed and adjust the inventory account for the difference.
C. Return the invoice to the vendor for correction.
D. Authorize payment of the full invoice, but maintain an open purchase order record for the missing goods.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is used to identify and prioritize critical business applications to determine those that must be restored and the order of restoration in the event that a disaster impairs information systems processing?
A. Contingent facility contract analysis.
B. System backup analysis.
C. Vendor supply agreement analysis.
D. Risk analysis.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
In forming a team to investigate an organization’s potential adoption of an activity-based costing system, the best reason to include an internal auditor on the team would be the auditor’s knowledge of:
A. Activities and cost drivers.
B. Information processing procedures.
C. Current product cost structures.
D. Internal control alternatives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Given the scarcity of internal audit resources, a chief audit executive (CAE) decided not to schedule a follow-up of audit recommendations when developing engagement work schedules.
Does the CAE’s decision violate the Standards?
A. No, because the Standards do not specify whether follow-up is needed.
B. No, because when there is evidence of sufficient motivation by the client, there is no need for follow-up action.
C. Yes, because scarcity of resources is not a sufficient reason to omit follow-up action.
D. Yes, because the Standards require the auditors to determine whether the client has appropriately implemented all of the auditor’s recommendations.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: C

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Welcome to Pass4itsures Blog: Free Cisco 300-070 Dumps(1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
A voice engineer is troubleshooting an issue that involves incoming calls to POTS lines. Which command verifies the digits that are received by voice-port?
A. debug voip dial-per
B. debug vtsp session
C. debug vtsp dsp
D. debug call treatment
E. debug voice protocol
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey\’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey\’s Gateway.
C. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
D. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey\’s Gateway and CUCM.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager software- based Media Termination Point? (Choose three.)
A. The codec and packetization of both call legs must be identical.
B. This Media Termination Point type does not require any DSP resources on the Cisco router.
C. DSP resources are required.
D. It can provide G.711 mu-law to G.711 a-law conversion and vice versa.
E. It can provide packetization conversion for a given codec (for example, if one call leg is using a 20-mssampe size, but the other call legis using a 30-ms sample size).
F. This Media Termination Point type is typically used for RSVP agent configurations or Cisco Unified borderelementmedia flow-through configuration.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 8
What is a route list?
A. a list of locations
B. an ordered list of regions
C. a list of route patterns
D. an ordered list of gateways and trunks
E. an ordered list of route groups
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the recommended default value that is used between regions for video calls?
A. 384 Kbps.
B. G.722.
C. G.711.
D. G.728.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold
B. H.323 trunk
C. Media Termination Point
D. Meet-Me Conference
E. SIP trunk
F. Transcoder
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 13
Refer to Exhibit: An engineer is working on a ticket that reports TEL1 cannot call TEL2. These dial peers are configured to route the call between the endpoints.

dial-peer voice 2001voip
destination-pattern 2001
session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.1.1.2
incoming called-number .
codec g722-64
video codec h264
dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify sip-kpml
no vad
dial-peer voice 3001 voip
destination-pattern 3001
session protocol sipv2
session target ipv4:10.3.1.2
incoming called-number .
codec g722-64
video codec h264
dtmf-relay rtp-nte sip-notify sip-kpml
no vad
While troubleshooting, the engineer discovers that the Cisco Unified Border Element is giving the error andquot;SIP/2.0
403 Forbiddenandquot;. Which two Cisco Unified Border Element configurations resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list ipv4 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 ipv4 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
B. voice service voip no ip address trusted authenticate mode border-element allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
C. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
D. voice service voip mode border-element allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
E. voice service voip mode border-element ip address trusted list ipv4 10.1.1.0 255.255 255.0 ipv4 10.3.1.0 255.255.255.0 allow-connections sip to sip sip bind control source-interface loopback0 bind media source-interface loopback0
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5.
B. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7.
C. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3.
D. DSCP AF21, Cos 5.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two codecs are the best codecs to use in WAN and LAN? (Choose two.)
A. WAN codec G.711
B. LAN codec G.729
C. WAN codec G.729
D. LAN codec G.711
300-070 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
Which route pattern is the best match for the range of 6000 to 6599?
A. 65XX
B. 60XX
C. 6[05]XX
D. 6XXX
E. 6[0-5]
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two describe how media resources and audio streams operate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Audio streams are terminated differently depending on the signaling protocol, such as SCCP or SIP.
B. Audio streams are always terminated by media resources.
C. All media resources register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. There are no situations in which IP phone-to-IP phone audio streams will go directly between endpoints.
E. Signaling between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and hardware media resources uses the same protocol as the call-signaling type.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent
system?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. NoDigits
D. Trailing-#
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to Exhibit: If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21

To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9. Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials the toll-free number 18005550123?
A. 911
B. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
C. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
D. 9.18[0,6-8][0,6-8]XXXXXXX
E. 9.1900XXXXXXX
F. 9011!
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
What is a VoIP dial peer?
A. A nonaddressable call endpoint.
B. A call routing mechanism to send and receive calls based on called or calling digits.
C. A physical connection for call legs.
D. A logical connection for call legs.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.

What are the two main ways from New York to call Extension 6001 in England? (Choose two.) sh run | s Dial-peer dial peer voice 2 voip destination-pattern 6… preference 0 session-target ipv4: 200.10.10.5 dtmf-relay sip-notify dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 6… preference 1 port 0/0/0:23 prefix 757385 dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. The first way is WAN.
B. The first way is PSTN.
C. The second way is WAN.
D. The second way is PSTN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
Which four software based media resources require that the Cisco IP voice media stream Application be activated?
A. MOH.
B. SIP.
C. H.323 Gateways.
D. Annunciator.
E. Gatekeeper.
F. MTP.
G. Audio conferencing.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: ADFG

QUESTION 26
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 27
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 30
Which tool can you use to evaluate dial plans for errors and to examine internal-to-internal and internal-to-external calls?
A. RTMT
B. DNA
C. QRT Viewer
D. CAR tool
Correct Answer: B
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